Experts written 646-222 Cisco exam preparation materials

QUESTION 1

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. This customer manages a large enterprise campus and three small branch offices. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. integrated IP telephony services

B. robust PSTN interfaces

C. interoperability between Cisco CallManager and Cisco CallManager Express

D. remote maintenance

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Cisco Unity Express adds which three features to the Cisco IP Communications Express solution? (Choose three.)

A. data encryption

B. auto attendant

C. voice mail

D. call processing

E. group messaging

F. call routing

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 3

A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of the customer?

A. Cisco Unity Express

B. Cisco Unity

C. customized XML applications

D. Cisco CallManager

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Together, which two products provide a complete solution for the SMB or enterprise branch and is ideal for extending a decentralized Cisco IP Communications solution to individual sites. (Choose two.)

A. Cisco CallManager

B. Cisco CallManager Express

C. Cisco Unity

D. Cisco Unity Express

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7

One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?

A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP components are integrated.

B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.

C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.

D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Cisco CallManager Express supports FXO trunks, analog DID, T1/E1, BRI, PRI, and E1 R2 signaling. Which benefit of Cisco CallManager Express does this represent?

A. cost-effectiveness

B. robust PBX functionality

C. remote maintenance

D. robust PSTN interfaces

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

If a customer is specifically interested in reducing the cost of IT overhead, which benefit is most applicable?

A. improved employee processes

B. reduced network administration

C. reduced long-distance charges

D. increased productivity of sales representatives

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which tool provides a completely transparent, Microsoft Excel-based spreadsheet that focuses on areas of IP telephony savings for Cisco IP Communications Express solutions?

A. Cisco CNIC

B. computer telephony integration analyzer

C. Cisco ROI methodology

D. needs-based competitive differentiator

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

What are two areas of savings often associated with convergence in terms of lowered costs over traditional voice communication? (Choose two.)

A. toll bypass

B. data storage

C. XML applications

D. moves, adds, and changes

E. CTI

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14

A potential customer has just described its system, which includes equipment that connects its users, provides many advanced services, connects to the PSTN, and is owned by the phone company. Which of

the following systems does the customer most likely use?

A. PBX

B. Centrex

C. key system

D. packet-switched network

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 3

The leader in the quality movement who recommended that organizations “eliminate numerical quotas for the work force and numerical goals for management.” :

A. Juran

B. Ishikawa

C. Crosby

D. Feigenbaum

E. Taguchi

F. none of the above

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 4

The quality leader responsible for the term Total Quality Management (TQM):

A. Juran

B. Ishikawa

C. Crosby

D. Feigenbaum

E. Taguchi

F. none of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

The quality leader most associated with the concept of robustness:

A. Juran

B. Ishikawa

C. Crosby

D. Feigenbaum

E. Taguchi

F. none of the above

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6

The support for an important quality initiative was lacking in congress until Reagan’s Secretary of Commerce was killed in a horseback riding accident in 1987. That initiative was:

A. assigning National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) quality oversight duties

B. “consensus of the House” proclamation for Deming’s 14 points

C. changing National Bureau of Standards to NIST.

D. authorizing the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to join with the International Standards Organization (ISO) to promulgate standards.

E. none of the above.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8

In a series of linked processes and associated feedback loops the product or service flows ________ and the information flows ________.

A. rapidly, slower

B. downstream, upstream

C. evenly, digitally

D. sooner, later

E. to the customer, from the supplier

F. none of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

The word “champion” in the context of Six Sigma projects refers to:

A. the team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.

B. the person who has coordinated teams most effectively

C. the individual who has outpaced all others in six sigma knowledge

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

George is an employee of Black, Inc. John is George’s internal customer. Which statement is true?

A. John is employed by Black, Inc.

B. John is employed by another company that supplies material to Black, Inc.

C. John is employed by a company that purchases material from black, Inc.

D. John is employed by another company that has a fiduciary agreement with Black, Inc.

E. John is employed by another company as an internal auditor.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

A team has been asked to reduce the cycle time for a process. The team decides to collect baseline data. It will do this by:

A. seeking ideas for improvement from all stakeholders

B. researching cycle times for similar processes within the organization

C. obtaining accurate cycle times for the process as it currently runs

D. benchmarking similar processes outside the organization

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Customer segmentation refers to:

A. dividing a particular customer into parts that are more easily understood

B. grouping customers by one or more criteria

C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among them

D. eliminating or “cutting off” customers with poor credit history

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

This is an example of part of a:

A. QFD Matrix

B. Activity Network Diagram

C. Interrelationship Diagram

D. Affinity Diagram

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

:

Please study the exhibit carefully.

What traffic will be matched to the “qt-class” traffic class?

A. all traffic matched by the “host-protocols” named access list

B. all other traffic arriving at the interface where the “qt-policy” policy map is applied

C. all TCP and UDP protocol ports open on the router not specifically matched

D. all traffic other than SNMP and Telnet to the router

E. all traffic matched by the “host-protocols” nested class map

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which three of these statements are correct regarding DMVPN configuration? (Choose three.)

A. The GRE tunnel mode must be set to point-to-point mode: tunnel mode gre point-to-point

B. The GRE tunnel must be associated with an IPsec profile: tunnel protection ipsec profile profile-name

C. At the spoke routers, static NHRP mapping to the hub router is required: ip nhrp map hub-tunnel-ip-address hub-physical-ip-address

D. The spoke routers must be configured as the NHRP servers: ip nhrp nhs spoke-tunnel-ip-address

E. If running EIGRP over DMVPN, the hub router tunnel interface must have “next hop self” enabled: ip next-hop-self eigrp AS-Number

F. If running EIGRP over DMVPN, the hub router tunnel interface must have split horizon disabled: no ip split-horizon eigrp AS-Number

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 10

:What are two benefits of using an IPsec GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)

A. It has less overhead than running IPsec in tunnel mode.

B. It supports the use of dynamic crypto maps to reduce configuration complexity.

C. It requires a more restrictive crypto ACL to provide finer security control.

D. It allows dynamic routing protocol to run over the tunnel interface.

E. It allows IP multicast traffic.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 24

Which Cisco IOS command will trigger the router to request certificates from the CA for the router RSA key pair?

A. crypto pki trustpoint CA-Name

B. enrollment url http://CA-Name:80

C. crypto pki enroll CA-Name

D. crypto pki authenticate CA-Name

E. crypto key zeroize rsa

F. crypto key generate rsa

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which three configurations are required to enable the Cisco IOS Firewall to inspect a user-defined application which uses TCP ports 8000 and 8001? (Choose three.)

A. policy-map user-10 class user-10 inspect

B. int {type|number} ip inpsect name test in

C. ip inspect name test appfw user-10

D. ip inspect name test user-10

E. ip port-map user-10 port tcp 8000 8001 description “TEST PROTOCOL”

F. access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq 8000 access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq 8001 class-map user-10 match access-group 101

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 16

When you implement Cisco IOS WebVPN on a Cisco router using a self-signed certificate, you notice that the router is not generating a self-signed certificate. What should you check to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Verify the ip http server configuration.

B. Verify the WebVPN group policy configuration.

C. Verify the AAA authentication configuration.

D. Verify the ip http secure-server configuration.

E. Verify that the WebVPN gateway is inservice.

F. Verify the WebVPN context configuration.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17

:Please study the exhibit carefully.

What additional configuration is required to enable split tunneling?

A. the reverse-route command under “crypto isakmp client configuration group cisco”

B. the reverse-route command under “crypto dynamic-map mode 1″

C. the include-local-lan command under “crypto isakmp client configuration group cisco”

D. the include-local-lan under “crypto dynamic-map mode 1″

E. the acl 199 command under “crypto isakmp client configuration group cisco”

F. the match address 199 command under “crypto dynamic-map mode 1″

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20

Referring to a DMVPN hub router tunnel interface configuration, what can happen if the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is missing on the tunnel interface?

A. The NHRP mappings at the spoke routers will be incorrect.

B. The IPsec peering between the hub router and the spoke router will fail.

C. The NHRP request and response between the spoke router and hub router will fail.

D. The NHRP mappings at the hub router will be incorrect.

E. The GRE tunnel between the hub router and the spoke router will be down.

F. The dynamic routing protocol between the hub router and the spoke router will fail.

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 26

Which of the following are commands that can be entered on a Certkiller IOS Firewall router to debug communications with an AAA server? (Select all that apply)

A. debug aaa all

B. debug ip aaa

C. debug aaa accounting

D. debug tacacs

E. debug interface tacacs

F. None of the above

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 27

Which of the following router commands can you use to monitor AAA RADIUS?

A. show radius errors

B. show radius statistics

C. show ip aaa

D. show radius monitoring

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

You are the desktop administrator for Contoso, Ltd. The company’s network contains 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers, which are members of a single Active Directory domain. The computers’ hard disks are formatted as NTFS.

The company’s software developers release a new custom application. The application uses a .dll file named AppLib.dll, which is installed in a folder named \Program Files\Contoso\OpsApp.

The company’s help desk technicians report that several users experience problems when they use the application because the AppLib.dll file was deleted on their client computers. The company’s software developers recommend that you modify the file permissions on AppLib.dll so that users have only Read permission on the file.

You need to ensure that all users have only Read permission on the AppLib.dll file on all 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers. What should you do?

A. Write a logon script that moves the AppLib.dll file into the %systemroot%\System32 folder. Ensure that Windows File Protection is enabled on all 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers. Apply the logon script to all domain user accounts.

B. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to create a new security template that modifies the file permissions on AppLib.dlI. Use Active Directory Group Policy to import and apply the template to all 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers.

C. Repackage the custom application in a Windows Installer package. Ask a domain administrator to create a Group Policy object (GPO) that advertises the package to all domain user accounts.

D. Write a Microsoft Visual Basic Scripting Edition (VBScript) file named Modify.vbs that modifies the file permissions on AppLib.dlI. E-mail Modify.vbs to all company employees and instruct them to double-click the file in order to run it

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network contains 500 Windows XP

Professional computers. The information security department releases a new security template named

NewSec.inf.

You import NewSec.inf into a security database named NewSec.sdb. You analyze the result, and you

review the changes that the template makes.

You examine the security policies that are defined in NewSec.inf. You discover that the settings in

NewSec.inf have not been implemented on your computer.

You need to ensure that the settings in NewSec.inf overwrite the settings in your computer’s local security

policy. What are two possible ways to achieve this goaI? (Each correct answer presents a complete

solution. Choose two.)

A. Run the Secedit /configure /db C:\NewSec.sdb command.

B. Run the Secedit /refreshpolicy machine_policy command.

C. Copy NewSec.inf to the C:\Windows\Inf folder.

D. Copy NewSec.sdb to the C:\Windows\System32\Microsoft\Protect folder.

E. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to open NewSec.sdb and then to perform a Configure operation.

F. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to export NewSec.sdb to the Defltwk.inf security template.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

You are the administrator of 10 Windows XP Professional computers for your company. The computers

are members of a Windows 2000 domain.

Because the computers are used in a public area in the cafeteria, you audit all security events on the

computers.

A user named Marc reports that he was using one of the Windows XP Professional computers when the

computer suddenly shut down with a STOP error. When the computer restarted, Marc attempted to log on

by using the same user name and password that he used before. Marc received the following error

message: “Your account is configured to prevent you from using this computer. PIease try another

computer.” Marc states that he did not do anything to cause the STOP error to occur.

You want to ensure that Marc can use this computer. What should you do?

A. On the computer, save and clear the security log, set the CrashOnAuditFail setting to 1, and restart the computer.

B. On the computer, modify the local audit policy so that system events are not audited, set the CrashOnCtrIScroll setting to 1, and restart the computer.

C. In the domain, modify Marc’s Logon Workstations list to include the name of the computer.

D. In the domain, modify Marc’s account properties to unlock the account.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

You are a help desk technician for your company. Your company’s network includes an Active Directory domain and Windows XP Professional computers that are configured as members of the domain.

Company policy prohibits users from accessing their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. However, users report that they can log on to their computers, even though a network administrator has told them that a domain controller is not available.

As a test, you log off of your computer and disconnect it from the network. You discover that you can log on by using your domain user account.

You need to ensure that users cannot access their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. How should you configure the local computer policy on these computers?

A. Enable the Require domain controller to unlock policy.

B. Set the Number of previous logons to cache policy to 0.

C. Remove all user and group accounts from the Log on locally user right.

D. Remove all user and group accounts from the Access this computer from the network user right.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

You are a help desk technician for your company. AII users have Windows XP Professional computers.

Ten users run a custom application named Finance on their computers. Finance stores user passwords in

a file named Passwords.ini.

By default, the Passwords.ini file is stored in a folder named C:\Winnt\App1. The location and name of the

file can be changed by an administrator.

Each Passwords.ini file is unique. Each computer contains a single logical drive, which is drive C and is

formatted as NTFS.

In order to comply with a new company security policy, you need to ensure that the Passwords.ini files are

encrypted. What should you do?

A. In the properties of the C:\Winnt\App1 folder, use Windows Explorer to select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box.

B. Ask a network administrator to share a new encrypted folder named PassFiles on a network server and to permit users to read the files contained within the folder. Copy the Passwords.ini file from each computer into the PassFiles folder. On each computer, configure Finance to use the Passwords.ini file

in the PassFiles folder.

C. Create a folder named C:\Files. Copy the Passwords.ini file to the C:\Files folder. In the properties of the C:\Files folder, select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box. Configure Finance to use the C:\Files\Passwords.ini file.

D. Create a folder named C:\Files. Move the Passwords.ini file to the C:\Files folder. Instruct the user of each computer to open the properties of the C:\Files folder and select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box. Configure Finance to use the C:\Files\Passwords.ini file.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional portable computer. When you are traveling, you often dial in to the internet to connect to your company network.

Your company has a policy that prohibits Web sites that do not have a Platform for Privacy Preferences (P3P) privacy policy from saving cookies on employees’ computers. Web sites that do have a P3P policy are allowed to save cookies. You configure internet Explorer to comply with company policy.

After you make this configuration change, you receive a Privacy dialog box when you visit Web sites that do not comply with company policy. The Privacy dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X)button.)

However, you notice that these Web sites still welcome you based on personalized information. The Restricted Web sites list in the privacy report lists blocked cookies for these Web sites.

You want to ensure that Web sites that do not comply with your company policy cannot track your access to their Web sites. What should you do?

A. Change the Privacy setting to High.

B. Change the Advanced Privacy setting to block cookies for first-party and third-party cookies.

C. Change the Temporary internet Files setting to check for newer versions of stored pages every time you start internet Explorer.

D. Delete existing cookies that you received from the noncompliant Web sites.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You are a help desk technician for your company. AII users have Windows XP Professional computers.

A user named Richard reports that he cannot access www.southridgevideo.com, an internet Web site, by using internet Explorer. Whenever Richard types http://www.southridgevideo.com into the internet Explorer address bar, he receives the following error message: “Your security settings prohibit the display of unsigned ActiveX Controls.”

According to company policy, users should download unsigned ActiveX controls only from internet Web sites that have been approved by the company’s information security department.

You verify that www.southridgevideo.com is listed as an approved Web site. On Richard’s computer, you also verify that internet Explorer is configured with the default settings.

You need to ensure that Richard can access www.southridgevideo.com without receiving an error message. You also want to comply with company policy.

You need to configure Richard’s computer. First, you open the Security properties for internet Explorer on Richard’s computer.

Which two actions should you perform next? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Add www.southridgevideo.com to the Trusted Sites list.

B. Remove www.southridgevideo.com from the Restricted Sites list.

C. In the internet zone settings, enable the Allow unsigned ActiveX controls option.

D. Open the Local intranet Sites dialog box and clear the Include all network paths check box.

E. Open the Trusted Sites dialog box and clear the Require server verification for all sites in this zone check box.

F. Open the Intranet Sites dialog box. In Advanced properties, add www.southridgevideo.com to the list of Web sites.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8

You are the administrator of the Windows XP Professional portable computers that are used by your company’s sales representatives. The computers are members of a Windows 2000 domain. A Windows 2000 Server computer named Server1 contains the sales data used by the sales representatives in a shared folder named Data.

When sales representatives travel, they use the Offline Files feature to access the files in the \\Server1 \Data shared folder. You want to ensure that the offline files on the portable computers are not accessible by unauthorized persons, in the event that a portable computer is lost.

What should you do?

A. Instruct the sales representatives to configure the permissions on the offline files on their portable computers to allow access for only their user accounts.

B. On Server1, configure the permissions on all files in the Data shared folder to allow access for only the sales representatives.

C. Use a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Encrypt the Offline Files cache option for the portable computers.

D. On the portable computers, enable encryption of the %systemroot%\CSC folder. Apply this setting to the folder and files in the CSC folder.

E. On Server1, encrypt all files in the Data shared folder. Add all sales representatives to the encryption details.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII client computers currently run Windows 2000 Professional. The client computers have a typical disk configuration, as shown in the following table.

You are in the process of deploying new Windows XP Professional computers to users in the graphics department. The new computers currently have one hard disk. Each hard disk is configured as a dynamic disk, and it contains the system and boot volume. To maintain user data, you are moving the physical hard disks from the users’ original computers to the new computers.

Laura is a user in the graphics department. You move disk 1 from Laura’s original computer to her new computer. You do not move disk 0 to the new computer. When you run the Disk Management console on the new computer, the disk that you moved from Laura’s original computer appears with the status of Foreign. When you attempt to run the Import Foreign Disks utility, the Foreign Disk Volumes dialog box is displayed, as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

When you click the OK button, the disk is imported. However, the status of the disk changes to Failed, and you cannot access data that is stored on the disk.

You need to ensure that Laura can access the data that is stored on the hard disk that you moved to the new computer. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Run the Import Foreign Disks utility in the Disk Management console.

B. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Delete and re-create the spanned volume.

C. Convert the moved hard disk to a dynamic disk. Delete the spanned volume and create a simple volume.

D. Run the Ftonline e: command on the new computer. Back up the data that is on drive E. Delete and re-create the spanned volume, and restore the data.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII employees have Windows XP Professional portable computers.

A sales representative named Richard has a local user account on his computer. Richard is issued a portable USB print device. You log on to his computer and disable the restrictions on loading unsigned drivers. AII other local computer policies are configured with the default settings.

You restart Richard’s computer. Then Richard connects the USB print device, but the printer does not appear in the Printers folder, and Richard cannot print any documents.

You need to ensure that Richard can install the printer and print successfully. What should you do?

A. Add Richard to the local Print Operators group on his computer.

B. Add the /fastdetect switch in the Boot.ini file on Richard’s computer.

C. Disable the Prevent users from installing printer drivers Local security policy setting.

D. Modify the Driver Signing Options, selecting the Make this action the system default check box.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?

A. dir /all

B. cd dir /all

C. display dir

D. display dir /all

E. dir display /all

F. mkdir display /all

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?

A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address

B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address

C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address

D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)

A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN

B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN

C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs

D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3

E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4

Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?

A. Switch 5500-EI

B. Switch 5500-SI

C. Switch 5500G-EI

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Click on the exhibit button.

What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP routing-table information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The default route is 200.0.0.1

B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24

C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch

D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port #13 on switch unit #2?

A. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/13

B. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/0/13

C. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/1/13

D. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 13/0/2

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Click on the exhibit button.

Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked

B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual gateway path

C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the virtual gateway

D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Click on the exhibit button.

How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. None

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Click on the exhibit button.

Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2

B. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

C. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

D. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs), i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?

A. All VLANs will be tagged

B. All VLANs will be untagged

C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged

D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 3

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Organizational breakdown structure

C. Resource breakdown structure

D. Bill of materials

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

what is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product

B. Cost benefit

C. Stakeholder

D. Research

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stackholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis

C. Project records

D. Peformance reviews

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deterioring?

A. Control chart

B. Earned Value

C. Variance

D. Trend

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

A. Perform periodic project performance review

B. Identify quality project standards

C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards

D. Complete the quality control checklist

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is an example of risk symptom?

A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B. Force of nature, such as a flood

C. Risk threshold target

D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

During what process is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Controlling

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Scope verification is PRIMARLY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables

C. Approval of the scope statement

D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You discover that some mailboxes have been infected by malware. However there are no malware

infection notifications in the Forefront Protection for Exchange Server Console.

You need to immediately check specific mailboxes to see if they are infected by the malware.

What should you do?

A. You should run a Forefront Client Security scan on the client computers.

B. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform a real-time scan of the mailboxes.

C. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform an on-demand scan of the mailboxes.

D. You should install Microsoft Security Essentials on client computers.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

The subject line in each of the emails is: “Free access to our new online tournament!” You note that the sender email address is spoofed to appear to be from a different domain for each email.

How can you block this spam attack in future?

A. You should configure an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. You should configure a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. You should configure a keyword filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. You should configure a sender-domain custom filter in FPE.

E. You should configure a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

Four servers running Windows 2008 Server host the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.

Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You need to configure email scanning in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010.

How should you configure FPE to scan all emails sent from within the ABC.com domain to email recipients in the ABC.com domain?

A. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

B. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

C. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

D. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

E. You should configure FPE to perform Outbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The network environment is secured using Microsoft Forefront.

A server named ABC-ShPoint1 runs Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010. The SharePoint system is protected by Forefront Protection 2010 for SharePoint (FPSP).

How can you configure the environment to ensure that scanning is performed on all documents that pass through the SharePoint Portal?

A. By logging into the SharePoint portal and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

B. By logging into the SharePoint Central Administration website and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

C. By logging into the Forefront Protection for SharePoint console and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

D. By logging into IIS Manager on the SharePoint Web Server and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

E. By logging into the Security Centre on the SharePoint Database Server and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

How can you block a future spam attack based on repeated words in the body of the email?

A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.

E. by configuring a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

You examine the email headers and discover a common source IP address.

How can you block a future spam attack based on the IP address?

A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.

E. by configuring a connection filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You need to ensure the maximum security when users access their emails on the Exchange servers. You want to ensure that emails are scanned for as much malware as possible.

Which two of the following actions should you perform? (Choose two).

A. You should enable on-demand scanning.

B. You should enable real-time scanning.

C. You should select the option to scan message body.

D. You should select the option to scan after engine update.

E. You should increase the scanning timeout value.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the

Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

A new scan engine definition is released for Exchange Server 2010.

How can you immediately apply new definitions in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server?

A. by running the Set-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.

B. by running the Start-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.

C. by running the Get-FseSignatureOptions PowerShell cmdlet.

D. by running the Set-FseEngineManagement PowerShell cmdlet.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers. Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You receive reports from users saying that they receive undeliverable mail bounce messages for emails that they did not send. You suspect that the sender field has been forged in the failed messages.

How can you ensure that users do not receive undeliverable mail messages for emails that they did not send?

A. You should configure a sender filter on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

B. You should configure a backscatter filter on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

C. You should disable Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages on ABC-Edge1 and ABC- Edge2.

D. You should configure a separate Exchange mailbox to receive all Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You want to configure FPE to ensure that any Spyware infected files attached to incoming emails are removed as soon as they are received without deleting the email that the infected file is attached to.

How should you configure the Edge Transport Scan Action?

A. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Clean

B. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Detect.

C. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Delete.

D. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Purge.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

A customer requires Historical reporting features enabled in a key code. Which third party software must the field engineer install on the Windows 2000 server prior to the installation of the Web Client application?

A. MADC 2.5

B. WinSocket 2

C. Crystal Report

D. Sybase Open Client

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

At customer site the client PCs use partial Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to communicate with the server. During a review of the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation the field engineer discovers that the DNS and WINS are not configured. Select the likely consequence of NOT configuring the DNS Or Wins.

A. No scripting changes are sent from the client back to the server.

B. No client admin changes are sent from the client back to the server.

C. No real time display information is sent from the server back to the client.

D. No scheduled report information is sent from the server back to the client.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A field engineer is creating an Extended 4GB Partition in a server with a physical 4 GB Hard D rive for Platform vendor Independence(PVI). The PVI Compliance Check Utility that is run just before installing the Symposium Call Center Server 4.2 software may indicate a anon-compliant condition as it looks for a minimum drive space of 4096 Mbytes. What is the proper course of action for the field engineer to take if this happens?

A. The field engineer can safely ignore this warning if there are 4080 Mbytes or more of space available on the Extended partition.

B. The field engineer must select the “enable file and folder compression option” when reformatting the Extended Partition before proceeding.

C. The field engineer must build the drive as Primary partition to get the 4096 MB of space necessary top ass the Symposium Call Center 4.2 PVI Compliance Check Utility.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A field engineer is installing Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 on a Platform Independent (PVI) hardware solution with 8 Physical 4 GB Hard Disk Drives that are configured as 4 Logical Drives in RAID .The 4 Hard Disk Drives are partitioned with Drive C: as 4 GB Primary Partition, and Drives D:,F:, and G: as 4 GB Extended Partitions. In this configuration, which Drive will the NT4 Operating System be installed on, which Drive will Sybase be installed on, and which drive will the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 application be installed on?

A. OS, Sybase, and Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 on Primary Partition C:

B. OS on Primary Partition C:, Sybase and Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 on Extended Partition D:

C. OS and Sybase on Primary Partition C:, and Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 on Extended Partition

D:

D. OS and Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 on Primary Partition C:, and Sybase on Extended Partition

D:

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A field engineer is Called on-site to work on a problem with the Symposium Express agent performance

reports. The report prints out but there is no information contained in it. Upon review of the Server and

Client the field engineer finds the following to be true.

NT is installed on the C: Drive.

The customer has installed the latest Nortel Networks provided PEP. The supervisor logging in has the

proper access class to build reports. The customer is running the reports from DHCP Clients.

How should the field engineer proceed?

A. Reinstall the NT on the D: drive

B. Verify that the server supports the DHCP Clients

C. Run the configuration Utility and reboot the server

D. Build another supervisor and give them admin rights

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

A customer has a Windows 95 Client and has decided to use it for the Symposium Web Client application. What Client software requirements must be met if the customer runs Agent Desktop Displays?

A. Windows Socket 2

B. Internet Explorer 5.0

C. Sybase Open Client V.12

D. Microsoft Data Access Components (MDAC) v.2.0

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

When configuring the customer supplied computer intended for use as the server PC prior to a new Symposium Express Call Center Release 3.0 installation, the field engineer finds that the customer has supplied a Token Ring Network interface Card (NIC) connection to the ELAN. What action should the field engineer take?

A. Remove the Token Ring NIC card and use the serial port COM1 for the connection to the ELAN.

B. Replace the Token Ring NIC card with a 155Mbps OC-3 network interface card for connection to the ELAN.

C. Replace the Token Ring NIC card with a 10 Base T Ethernet network interface card for connection to the ELAN.

D. Leave the Token Ring NIC card as is since the ELAN can be either Token Ring or Ethernet depending on the customer’s local area network requirements.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

After the field engineer has completed the installation of the Symposium Express Call Center Release 3.0 software on the customer-supplied server and client PCs the current Product Enhancement Packages (PEP s) must be installed. One of the PEPs that must be installed is named NS030121G003C. On which computer or computers will this PEP be installed?

A. The server PC only

B. The standalone client PCs only

C. The server PC with the co-resident client only

D. The server PC with the co-resident client and the standalone client PCs

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

In order to connect the Symposium Call Center 4.0 with the Meridian 1PBX the field engineer will need to collect some information on the configuration of the PBX .What PBX information is required prior to software installation of the Symposium Call Center Server?

A. PBX name, PBX customer number, PBX ELAN primary IP address, and PBX CLAN IP address

B. PBX name, PBX ELAN primary IP address, PBX ELAN secondary IP address PBX CLAN IP address

C. PBX name, PBX customer number, PBX ELAN primary IP address, and PBX C. ELAN secondary IP address

D. PBX customer number, PBX ELAN primary IP address, PBXELAN secondary IP address, and PBX CLAN IP address

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17

During the Symposium Express Call Center Release 3.0 software installation the customer requires the client application software be installed both as the co-resident client on the server PC and on several standalone client PCs. During the client application installation program on a Standalone client PC is run, which additional software components will the field engineer see were NOT part of the co-resident client installation on the server PC?

A. DMI, Sybase, and ODBC

B. MAS Platform, RAS, and SNMP

C. SQL Server, pcAnywhere, and Crystal Reports

D. Mas Client Base, SMI Workbench, and NCC Reports

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 7

Which three of these statements are correct regarding DMVPN configuration? (Choose three.)

A. The GRE tunnel mode must be set to point-to-point mode: tunnel mode gre point-to-point

B. The GRE tunnel must be associated with an IPsec profile: tunnel protection ipsec profile profile-name

C. At the spoke routers, static NHRP mapping to the hub router is required: ip nhrp map hub-tunnel-ip-address hub-physical-ip-address

D. The spoke routers must be configured as the NHRP servers: ip nhrp nhs spoke-tunnel-ip-address

E. If running EIGRP over DMVPN, the hub router tunnel interface must have “next hop self” enabled: ip next-hop-self eigrp AS-Number

F. If running EIGRP over DMVPN, the hub router tunnel interface must have split horizon disabled: no ip split-horizon eigrp AS-Number

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 10

:What are two benefits of using an IPsec GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)

A. It has less overhead than running IPsec in tunnel mode.

B. It supports the use of dynamic crypto maps to reduce configuration complexity.

C. It requires a more restrictive crypto ACL to provide finer security control.

D. It allows dynamic routing protocol to run over the tunnel interface.

E. It allows IP multicast traffic.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 14

When you implement 802.1x authentication on the ACS, which two configurations are performed under the ACS System Configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Global Authentication Setup

B. Users

C. RACs

D. Logging

E. NAPs

F. Groups

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17

Please study the exhibit carefully.

Which optional AAA or RADIUS configuration command is used to support 802.1x guest VLAN functionality?

A. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius

B. radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813

C. aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius

D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius

E. aaa authorization network default group radius

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18

DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, miss Certkiller, is interested in NFP (Network Foundation Protection) features. Match the proper features with appropriate descriptions.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19

:

DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, miss Certkiller, is interested

in Cisco IOS Firewall features. Match the proper features with appropriate descriptions.

Note: not all features are used.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 21

Please study the exhibit carefully.

Given that the fa0/1 interface is the trusted interface, what could be a reason for users on the trusted inside networks not to be able to successfully establish outbound HTTP connections?

A. The FWRULE inspection policy is not configured correctly.

B. ACL 104 is denying the outbound HTTP traffic.

C. ACL 104 is denying the return HTTP traffic.

D. The FWRULE inspection policy is not inspecting HTTP traffic.

E. The outgoing ACL on the fa0/1 interface is not set.

F. The outgoing inspection rule on the fa0/1 interface is not set.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

Please study the exhibit carefully.

What additional configuration is required for the Cisco IOS Firewall to reset the TCP connection if any peer-to-peer, tunneling, or instant messaging traffic is detected over HTTP?

A. the port-misuse default action reset alarm command in the HTTP application firewall policy configuration

B. the service default action reset command in the HTTP application firewall policy configuration

C. the PAM configuration for mapping the peer-to-peer, tunneling, and instant messaging TCP ports to the HTTP application

D. the ip inspect name firewall im, ip inspect name firewall p2p, and ip inspect name firewall tunnel commands

E. class-map configuration for matching peer-to-peer, tunneling, and instant messaging traffic over HTTP, and a policy map specifying the reset action

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

:

Network topology exhibit

Certkiller 1 configuration exhibit: Certkiller 2 configuration exhibit:

Refer to the exhibits. Why is the IPsec site-to-site VPN between Router Certkiller 1 and Router Certkiller 2 not working?

A. The crypto maps are missing the authentication method configuration.

B. The crypto ACLs of the two routers do not match.

C. The crypto ACLs are not permitting the routing protocol traffic between Router Certkiller 1 and Router Certkiller 2.

D. Neither router has a route in its routing table to reach the other protected subnet.

E. The IPsec SA lifetime has not been configured.

F. The crypto maps default to transport mode, need to specify tunnel mode in the crypto maps.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

When you implement 802.1x authentication, the RACs configured under the Shared Profile Components in the ACS are referenced by which other ACS component?

A. group setup

B. user setup

C. the posture-validation policy of the NAP

D. the authentication policy of the NAP

E. the authorization policy of the NAP

F. the NDG

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 3

You are at a client site. It is a medium-sized business and needs a Cisco Catalyst switch that offers high availability and security. What type of Catalyst switches would you recommend?

A. Catalyst 2960 Series

B. Catalyst 3750 Series

C. Catalyst 4900 Series

D. Catalyst 6500 Series

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

The Cisco Unified Wireless Network minimizes the TCO and maximizes woreless network uptime by optimizing which two deployment, management, and security features?

(Choose two)

A. unified wireless and wired infrastructure for a single point of control for all WLAN traffic

B. simplified management of central or remotely located access points

C. extension features to wired network services, such as denial of service prevention and ACLs

D. threat defense with a robust wired IDS

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

What would you use to enforce security-policy compliance on all devices that seek to access the network?

A. VLAN

B. NAC

C. EAP

D. WLAN

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)

A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements

B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security

C. producing a documented technology strategy

D. creating a bill of materials

E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them

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Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7

The price of Cisco Small Business Pro Service is based on the complexity of the device that is being covered. How many different price points for these devices are available?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which two ways does an integrated security solution reduce TCO? (Choose two)

A. by enabling business to leverage investments in the network

B. by spending less time addressing attacks

C. by enforcing policy compliance

D. through admission control

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13

Which of the following is less vulnerable to threats and attacks because it is not associated with one specific operating system?

A. Cisco Voice and Video over VPN

B. Cisco Secure Access Control Server

C. Cisco NAC Appliance

D. Cisco Threats Response

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

In what way does Cisco SMARTnet help customers protect their network investments?

A. allows them to acquire replacement hardware as needed instead of carrying it in inventory

B. includes upgrade insurance

C. includes Cisco Learning Credits for staff training

D. provides them with trade-in incentives for their end-of-life products

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

Hacks and intrusions affect the economic performance of business immediately, in the short-term, and in the long-term. Which two of these are short-term economic impacts of a security branch?

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A. loss of retail sales

B. erosion of investor confidence

C. disruption of business operation

D. loss of suppliers or customers

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17

After a client has developed a security policy, what is recommended that they do next?

A. monitor and respond

B. analyze and improve

C. secure the network

D. test the system

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

A section of your project contains only a summary task along with four subtasks and a milestone. You discover that the section is located in the incorrect phase and has the incorrect Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering. You need to move the section to another phase of the project. You also need to ensure that the section reflects the correct WBS numbering. What should you do?

A. Select the summary task and change the scheduling mode to Manually Scheduled.

B. Select the entire section and click Move Task.

C. Drag the summary task.

D. Modify the start and finish dates of the summary task.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

You have a Project 2010 schedule that contains the following tasks: Inactive tasksManually scheduled tasksManually scheduled summary tasksTasks that contain strikethrough font You want to save the schedule as a Project 2007 project. You need to ensure that no new milestones are created. What should you do?

A. Change all inactive tasks to active tasks.

B. Change all tasks that contain strikethrough font to tasks that include normal font.

C. Change all manually scheduled summary tasks to automatic scheduling.

D. Change all manually scheduled tasks to automatic scheduling.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

You manage several projects. Each project has shared resources and work distribution. You need to ensure that you can adjust the workload for specific resources used across multiple project schedules. What should you do?

A. Enable the Load Summary Resource Assignments option. Then, select the Level Resource function on each project.

B. Open the individual schedules and use the Visual Reports option. Then, use the Resource Usage view to manually modify resource Work.

C. Open a blank project and select Insert Subproject for each project schedule. Then, use the Level Resource function for selected resources.

D. Open the shared Resource Pool for each project schedule. Then, use the Level Resources function.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

You manage a project that specifies all constraint types to As Soon As Possible. You discover that one of your key tasks is scheduled to end prior to the targeted finish date. You need to display the targeted finish date on the default Gantt chart. What should you modify in the Task Information window?

A. Set the Deadline date field.

B. Set the Constraint date field.

C. Set the Finish date field.

D. Select the Mark task as milestone check box.

E. Select the Display on Timeline check box.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

The first major phase of your project is scheduled for a duration of 45 days. However, you do not have task information for other phases. You need to indicate that the duration of the entire project is 200 days. What should you do?

A. Select the Project Summary Task option.

B. Select the Summary Tasks option.

C. Create a manually scheduled summary task.

D. Update the project calendar.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

The project you manage has only part-time resources. The part-time resources work four hours a day from Wednesday through Saturday. You need to create a new calendar and set the calendar as the default for your project. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)

A. Select the part-time calendar from the Change Working Time window.

B. Set the calendar type to part-time for all tasks.

C. Select the part-time calendar from the Project Information window.

D. On the Project tab, Select Change Working Time, and then click Create New Calendar.

E. Change the Calendar type in the Project Options dialog box.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8

You manage a project according to the schedule as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to set the Task Mode for task 4 to be the same as task 6. What should you do?

A. Create a task dependency from Task 4 to Task 6.

B. Set Task 4 as critical.

C. Add a 1 day lead to Task 4.

D. Set Task 4 as manually scheduled.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

You use bottom-up scheduling. You need to group four consecutive tasks in a major phase. You highlight the four tasks. Which command should you use?

A. Outdent

B. Fill Down

C. Insert Summary

D. Move Task

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

You need to view Task ID 0 on your project plan. What should you do?

A. On the Advanced tab of the Project 2010 options, select Show Status Bar.

B. On the Format tab, select Summary Tasks.

C. On the Format tab, select Project Summary Task.

D. Insert a new Summary Task.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

You have added two new tasks to your project. Both tasks are subtasks to a summary task. You need to update Baseline1 only for the two new tasks. What should you do?

A. Highlight the two tasks.Click Set Baseline and select Baseline1.Click the Selected Tasks radio button, select To all summary tasks, and then click OK.

B. Highlight the summary task.Click Set Baseline and select Baseline1.Click the Selected Tasks radio button, select To all summary tasks, and then click OK.

C. Highlight the summary task.Click Set Baseline and select Baseline1.Click the Entire Project radio button, and then click OK.

D. Highlight the two tasks.Click Set Baseline and select Baseline1.Click the Selected Tasks radio button, and then click OK.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

How does the Cisco NAM determine the presence of vulnerability without using the Cisco NAA on the client machine?

A. The end-user Cisco Trust Agent capability summary message does not match the defined role-based security policy requirement on the Cisco NAM.

B. The Cisco NAM receives a Cisco Security Agent vulnerability alert from the Cisco NAS

C. The Nessus network scan report matches a defined role-based or OS-based vulnerability on the Cisco NAM

D. The Cisco NAM will perform an agentless scan and interpret the results to determine if the client machines is vulnerable

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which features must be configured to ensure that users can perform update and remediation?

A. Temporary Roles and Quarantines roles

B. Nessus Plug-ins and Antivirus Rules

C. Temporary and Quarantine network Remediation timer

D. Session timeouts and traffic controls policies

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which two functions can a Cisco NAC Appliance Agent be configured to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Check for up-to-date antivirus and antispam files

B. Detect the presence of worms and viruses before permitting network access to an end user

C. Perform registry, service and application checks

D. Initiate periodic Virus Scans

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16

When configuring an in-band central-deployment virtual gateway on the Cisco NAS, what must be configured to ensure that the interface traffic on the same Layer 2 switch does not create a loop?

A. In the network form, select the passthrough VLAN ID option for the untrusted and trusted management VLAN

B. Configure the first switch downstream of the Cisco NAS with Spanning Tree

C. In the managed subnet form, enter the IP address that is assigned to the Cisco NAS to route the subnet, not the calculated network address

D. In the VLAN mapping form, map the untrusted interface VLAN ID to a trusted network VLAN ID

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20

Which NAC Appliance Component performs network scanning?

A. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent

B. Cisco NAC Appliance Server

C. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager

D. Cisco NAC Trust Agent

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21

In the Cisco NAM, under Administration-> User Pages -> Login Page, custom login pages can be created based on which three things? (Choose three.)

A. Operating System

B. User Role

C. Cisco NAS

D. Cisco NAM

E. VLAN

F. Subnet

Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 23

Network Topology Exhibit: Exhibit #2:

Your work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibits carefully. A network Administrator is adding a Cisco NAC Appliance to a network. In the Clean Access Server Type Filed, which Cisco NAS mode should the administrator specify?

A. Out-of-band Virtual Gateway

B. NAT Gateway

C. Virtual Gateway

D. Real IP Gateway

E. Out-of-band real IP gateway

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26

Why is critically important to maintain clock synchronization between Cisco NAC Appliance components?

A. Log Files will not show the actual time of system events

B. Cisco NAC Appliance Components communicate using SSL Certificates, which rely on accurate time to function correctly

C. Accurate time is required when performing vulnerability assessment and remediation

D. Cisco Switches that are being managed by SNMP messages need to be time synchronized to function

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31

When the Cisco NAS is configured for Windows Active Directory SSO to which component in a Cisco NAC Appliance solution does the client make a request for a Kerberos Service ticket?

A. Cisco NAS

B. Cisco NAM

C. Microsoft Windows Active Directory Server

D. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35

Which two functions can a Cisco NAC Appliance Agent be configured to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Perform registry, service and application checks

B. Detect the presence of worms and viruses before permitting network access to an end user

C. Initiate periodic virus scans

D. Check for up-to-date antivirus and antispam files

E. Quarantine an end user until the client machine complies with company policy

Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1

Which Cisco ASA’s Unified Communications proxy feature manipulates both the signaling and the media channels?

A. TLS Proxy

B. H.323 Proxy

C. SIP Proxy

D. Phone Proxy

E. CUMA Proxy

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Deploying logical security controls such as firewall and IPS appliances is an example of which kind of risk-management option?

A. risk avoidance

B. risk transfer

C. risk retention

D. risk reduction

E. risk removal

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5

Which two protocols can be used to implement high-availability IPS design, using the Cisco IPS 4200 Series Sensor appliance? (Choose two.)

A. spanning tree

B. stateful failover

C. EtherChannel load balancing

D. WCCP

E. HSRP

F. SDEE

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the “Direct to tower” or PAC file methods for redirecting traffic to ScanSafe?

A. Advantages: ease of deployment, especially for multiple breakout points Disadvantages: no user granularity

B. Advantages: user granularity Disadvantages: requires additional hardware for each breakout point

C. Advantages: no browser changes required Disadvantages: not all browsers supported

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which statement is true?

A. Three-year commitments cost less per year than three consecutive one-year commitments.

B. Three consecutive one-year commitments cost less than one three-year commitment.

C. Three-year commitments cost the same per year as three consecutive one-year commitments

D. CiscoIronPort does not sell three-year commitments.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” 4 Cisco 642-583: Practice Exam

Which statement regarding the Cisco ASA encrypted voice inspection capability is correct?

A. The Cisco ASA decrypts, inspects, then re-encrypts voice-signaling traffic; all of the existing VoIP inspection functions for SCCP and SIP protocols are preserved.

B. The Cisco ASA acts as a non-transparent TLS proxy between the Cisco IP Phone and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

C. TLS proxy applies to the encryption layer and is configured by using a Layer 3/4 inspection policy on the Cisco AS

D. D. The Cisco ASA does not support PAT and NAT for SCCP inspection.

E. The Cisco ASA serves as a proxy for both client and server, with the Cisco IP Phone and the Session Border Controller.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

The Cisco IPS Manager Express (IME) can be used to manage how many IPS appliances, at a maximum?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 10

D. 15

E. 20

F. 25

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which Cisco ASA configuration is required to implement active/active failover?

A. transparent firewall

B. modular policy framework (MPF)

C. virtual contexts

D. policy-based routing

E. redundant interfaces

F. VLANs

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which option best describes Dynamic Content Filtering on the web security appliance?

A. external DLP option for acceptable use scanning

B. filter for pages and frames with dynamic control asset HTML tags

C. content scanner for streaming videos

D. advanced rule engine for categorizing dark web sites

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

What factors should you use when measuring resources to help you size your Steelhead appliances? (Select 3)

A. Number of connections per second

B. Average response time

C. Maximum number of optimized connections

D. Datastore capacity

E. Maximum number of TCP connections

F. WAN capacity

Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2

What WAN traffic problems do Steelhead appliances overcome? (Select 3)

A. Number of connections per second

B. Data deduplication

C. Bandwidth

D. Latency

E. TCP window size

F. Optimization

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6

Can you manage your Virtual Steelhead appliance from a Central Management Console?

A. Yes, this is possible “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Riverbed 101-01 Exam

B. Only on out-of-path deployments

C. Only on in-path deployments

D. There is a dedicated management device for Virtual Steelhead appliances

E. You can only manage your Virtual Steelhead appliances using a virtualized console

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

With branch warming enabled, new data transferred between the Steelhead Mobile client and a server will be populated into: (Select 3)

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A. The Steelhead Mobile client datastore

B. The local office Steelhead appliance datastore

C. The server-side Steelhead appliance datastore

D. Datastore will not be populated

E. The Steelhead Mobile Controller datastore

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10

A Steelhead appliance can be configured to automatically send an email to a preconfigured email address in the event of a failure. Where is this done? (Select 3)

A. GUI

B. CLI

C. RADIUS/TACACS

D. Can be done via the Central Management Console

E. DNS server

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11

What does the RiOS acronym stand for?

A. Riverbed interact Operations Shares

B. Riverbed Optimization System

C. Riverbed integrating Operating System

D. Riverbed is Orange Shamrocks

E. Riverbed is Outstandingly Simple

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

How many in-path rules will a WAN-initiated single connection execute on a Steelhead appliance?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Which version of WCCP supports redirection of all TCP traffic?

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B. Version 2

C. Version 9

D. Version 12.2.18

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

A user downloads a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation from a server across the network. The file has been seen before by both Steelhead appliances that are optimizing the link and so the user experiences warm performance. A second user at the same office has a local copy and adds some pictures then uploads the very same file. This file transfer can be considered:

A. Cold, the data now travels in another direction so the Steelhead appliance needs to relearn the data

B. Cold, the file has been changed to the file needs to be stored again

C. Warm, all the data has been seen by the Steelhead appliances before

D. Warm, the transaction prediction module of the Steelhead appliance can detect the application and accelerate the transfer

E. Partially warm, the Steelhead appliances only need to learn the new data

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17

A user uploads a Microsoft Word document to a server across the network using the file transfer protocol (FTP). The file has been seen before by the Steelhead appliances that are optimizing the link and so the user experiences warm performance. A second user at the same location downloads the file from the same server using the CIFS protocol. This file transfer can be considered:

A. Cold, the data now travels in another direction so the Steelhead appliances need to relearn the data

B. Cold, the application protocol is now different so the Steelhead appliances need to relearn the data

C. Warm, the data has been seen by the Steelhead appliances before making the application protocol irrelevant

D. Warm, only because the transfer uses CIFS

E. Partially warm, the Steelhead appliances only need to learn the new data “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”

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Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

What are two areas of significant savings commonly associated with a converged voice and date solution, as compared to separate networks? (Choose two.)

A. move, add, and change orders

B. data storage

C. limited access

D. cabling

E. flexible staff scheduling

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3

Which product enables SMBs and enterprise branch offices to use Cisco Unity Express to cost-effectively integrate voice mail and auto attendant services?

A. Cisco 800 Series Integrated Services Routers

B. Cisco 1800 Series Integrated Services Routers

C. Cisco 2800 Series Integrated Services Routers

D. Cisco 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which feature is the primary differentiator of Cisco Emergency Responder to traditional E911 solutions?

A. allows other advanced software to exist with Cisco CallManager Express software

B. frees telecommunications resources from E911 location database updates

C. automates outgoing emergency call routing

D. cuts telecommunication infrastructure investments over the long term

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which Cisco IP phone would be most appropriate for a customer who would like to have additional lines and speed dial buttons on their phone?

A. Cisco IP Phone 7902G

B. Cisco IP Phone 7910SW

C. Cisco IP Phone 7914 Expansion Module

D. Cisco IP Phone 7940

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

What is a key benefit of a converged solution for many organizations?

A. controls the high service costs that discourage network moves, adds, and changes

B. reduces reliance on switch technology

C. significantly reduces the TCO of voice networks in the short term

D. combines all data and voice networks under one system

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Which statement best describes one of the market trends toward a converged solution?

A. By 2007, traditional vendors will have developed new TDM systems.

B. Vendors are beginning to increase their support of TDM.

C. Vendors are offering IP-enabled PBX solutions that require the use of legacy PBX hardware.

D. Customers face the decision to continue spending to extend the life of a traditional system or invest in IP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Tracking employee productivity and simplifying employee training describe common concerns among individuals who fulfill which one of these roles?

A. telecommunications manager

B. IT manager

C. human resources manager

D. marketing manager

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

What are two advantages of a Cisco converged IP telephony solution? (Choose two.)

A. supports TDM as an emerging standard in telecommunications

B. provides a high level of security because voice and data networks are separate

C. incorporates open standards that support third-party devices and software

D. is highly scalable with support for up to 30,000 phones per cluster

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16

Which two of these statements best reflect how to position a Cisco IP telephony solution against a competitor solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco is the market innovator for IP telephony and invests heavily in research and development

B. Cisco IP telephony solutions typically have less up-front costs than IP-enabling an existing PBX.

C. An IP-enabled PBX solution does not offer “five nines” of reliability.

D. Cisco has over 6000 IP telephony customers that have realized an increased ROI from a true, end-to-end converged architecture.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17

Read the customer objection and select the two best answers. (Choose two.) Operations manager: A full-blown IP telephony solution seems much more expensive than a simple upgrade to our current system. IP telephony could definitely contribute to the success of several of our business objectives, but I am not sure we can justify the cost.

A. Simply enabling the current system may not accomplish these business objectives.

B. Seamlessly integrating your current PBX infrastructure with a full IP solution is the best way to stay ahead of the competition.

C. The scalability of Cisco IP Communications solutions will enable you to stay a step ahead of the competition

D. Accommodating unplanned growth and customer-driven changes can best be addressed with a distributed PBX solution

Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTIONs

QUESTION 1

What correctly describes the term “half duplex” as it refers to audio in a videoconference?

A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any given time.

B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking from any given room.

C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to speak at any given time.

D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak in a given room attending a conference.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which describes frequency response?

A. The ability to determine frequency content of a signal.

B. The ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes.

C. The ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits.

D. The ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do? (Select 2 answers.)

A. It turns up the volume to the far-end.

B. It selects among multiple microphones.

C. It turns down the volume to the far-end.

D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6

Which describe sub-band and wideband Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AECs)? (Select 3 answers.)

A. Wideband AECs treat the audio as one continuous segment.

B. Sub-band AECs treat the audio as a single 3.1 kHz segment.

C. Wideband AECs require additional processing to reduce echo artifacts.

D. Sub-band AECs divide the audio into small segments and process each segment independently.

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8

Synchronous uses clocks to provide __________.

A. timing for RTS

B. timing for DTR

C. timing from the network to the DTE

D. timing from the DCD to the DTR

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which test equipment is used to monitor the Q.931 messages?

A. Protocol analyzer

B. Distortion analyzer

C. QPSK transmission analyzer

D. Bit Error Rate Test (BERT) set

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is true of bonding?

A. It combines multiple D channels into one B channel.

B. It combines multiple B channels into one D channel.

C. It subdivides/recombines wideband signals to pass over the switched network as multiple channels.

D. It subdivides/recombines wideband signals to pass over the switched network.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which TCP/IP stack task handles video/audio conferencing frames?

A. File Transfer Protocol

B. User Datagram Protocol

C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol

D. Address Resolution Protocol

E. Simple Network Management Protocol

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 93

Which principal characteristic of the Cisco SDN allows endpoints to be admitted to the network based on their adherence to security policy as enforced by routers and switches?

A. endpoint security

B. integration

C. collaboration

D. adaptation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 106

What are three benefits of the Cisco SDN that will be recognized by business decision makers? (Choose three.)

A. lowers TCO by using the existing infrastructure

B. helps to meet regulatory requirements

C. protects against insecure or contaminated devices

D. helps to manage IT and operational risk

E. effectively enforces security and confidentiality policies company-wide

F. provides network availability and reliability

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 32

Which two Cisco Security technologies can help organization that have difficulty enforcing compliance to security policies that govern desktop antivirus software? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco ASA 55000 Series Adaptive Security Appliances

B. Cisco Integrated Service Routers

C. Cisco PIX Firewall 500 Series

D. Cisco Security Agent

E. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access)

F. Firewall Services Module

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

Once you have concluded the discovery process, you will set up a meeting with the final decision maker and present the value proposition,. Which two items would you include in your value proposition? (Choose Two.)

A. Qualitative information about how Cisco can help to increase revenue and reduce costs

B. A high-level review of the Cisco Security portfolio and how it differs from competitive offerings

C. A detailed review of the proposed technological enhancements that are provided in the security solution design

D. An analysis of the security-market business trends and related Cisco Solution offerings

E. A review of customer security pain points and business needs that you learned about during the discovery process

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16

Which three technologies allow the Cisco SDN to adapt to new threats as they arise? (Choose three.)

A. Antivirus

B. Application awareness

C. Behavior Recognition

D. Firewalling

E. Network Control

F. VPN

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 47

Continuance and protection fall under which layer of the business resilience model?

A. Business Resilience

B. Applications resilience

C. Communications resilience

D. Network Resilience

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 76

The Cisco SDN is a strategy to protect the business processes and the network of an organization by identifying, preventing, and adapting to security threats. What are three principal characteristics of the SDN? (Choose three.)

A. application security

B. adaptation

C. intelligence

D. collaboration

E. protection

F. integration

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 79

Which three technologies allow the Cisco SDN to adapt to new threats as they arise? (Choose three.)

A. antivirus

B. application awareness

C. behavior recognition

D. firewalling

E. network control

F. VPN

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 114

How does the Cisco SDN protect organizations from worm and virus outbreaks?

A. by controlling access control through different technologies, securing remote access by using VPN technology, and monitoring and enforcing which applications can run on the desktop

B. by protecting network endpoints, preventing infections from spreading through the network infrastructure, and monitoring the network in order to respond rapidly to outbreaks

C. by providing perimeter protection against unauthorized ingress and egress, providing network performance data to detect attacks, and securing desktops and laptops from malicious code

D. by checking for recognizable patterns, or by using heuristic scanning that inspects executable files using operations that might denote an unknown virus

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15

Which statement best describes the Cisco SDN strategy?

A. The SDN strategy is to protect standalone products at the physical perimeter of a network, where the LAN meets the WAN and corporate networks connect to the Internet.

B. The SDN strategy is to protect business processes and the network of an organization by identifying, preventing, and adapting to security threats and by including integrated, collaborative, and adaptive security elements throughout the network.

C. The SDN enables network elements to communicate with one another in a collaborative manner, for example, an IDS instructing an ACL to deny access to a connection.

D. The SDN is the most widely deployed network-admissions-control strategy, supporting organizations of all sizes as well as multiple access methods, including wireless, remote, LAN, WAN, and guest access.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?

A. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways

B. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways

C. Use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route

D. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which of the following alert actions can be transmitted to a use as notification that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)

A. Syslog

B. OPSEC-LEA (Clear and encrypted)

C. SNMP Trap

D. Distributed Threat Mitigation

E. Short Message Service

F. XML notification

Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 8

Which two configuration options enable the Cisco Security MARS appliance to perform mitigation? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP RW Community String

B. A NetFlow device added in the Cisco Security MARS database

C. Cisco Security MARS integration with Cisco Security Manager

D. Telnet or SSH access type with SNMP RO community

E. SSL communications with the network devices

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10

Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely or by just logging them to the database?

A. Inactivating the rules

B. Creating system inspection rules using the drop operation

C. Deleting the false-positive events from the events management page

D. Creating drop rules

E. Deleting the false-positive events from the incidents page

F. Inactivating the events

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which attack can be detected by Cisco Security MARS using NetFlow data?

A. Man-in-the Middle attack

B. Day-zero attack

C. Buffer overflow attack

D. Land Attack

E. Spoof attack

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which attack can be detected by Cisco Security MARS using NetFlow data?

A. Day-zero attack

B. Land Attack

C. Buffer overflow attack

D. Spoof attack

E. Man-in-the Middle attack

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17

DRAG DROP Your work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Cisco definitions. Match the terms with the appropriate definitions.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19

What three data points are used to correlate reports in the Cisco Security MARS? (Choose three.)

A. Query Criterion

B. Maximum Rank Returned

C. View Type

D. Period of Time E. Order/Rank By

F. Incident Type

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 21

Which two steps are required to represent a Check Point device in the Cisco Security MARS? ( Choose two.)

A. Define Primary Management station

B. Define Secure Internal Communicator (SIC)

C. Define Child Enforcement Modules(s)

D. Define Security Contexts

E. Define Check Point OPSEC

F. Define Parent Enforcement Module

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23

Once data archiving has been enabled on the Cisco Security MARS appliance when does archiving initially occur?

A. Data is archived via NFS when a new incident occurs

B. Data is archived when a configuration change occurs on the Cisco Security MARS

C. Data is archived nightly as a scheduled operation

D. Whenever a new event is received, data will be archived via NFS

E. Data is archived off the Cisco Security MARS via NFS when the Cisco Security MARS database fills up

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most costeffective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate

B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor

C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Your bank’s distributed R76 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

A. SmartView Tracker

B. SmartPortal

C. SmartUpdate

D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?

A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file

B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP

C. Password, Management Server IP

D. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Message digests use which of the following?

A. SHA-1 and MD5

B. IDEA and RC4

C. SSL and MD4

D. DES and RC4 Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

A. DES

B. IDEA

C. MD5

D. 3DES

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm’s business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicions?

A. SmartDashboard

B. SmartView Tracker

C. SmartUpdate

D. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A digital signature:

A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.

B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.

C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.

D. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?

A. Security Gateway

B. Management Server

C. Policy Server

D. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

A. SmartView Monitor

B. SmartReporter

C. Web UI

D. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.

A. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables

B. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP

C. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP

D. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

The e*Gate product is primarily used for Application Integration via:

A. Moving messages between internal and external message queues

B. Transformation, application and data integration, and event propagation to/from internal/external systems

C. Programming in Monk and Java programming languages

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

An e*Gate Schema:

A. Is comprised of at least one e*Way, Collaboration, Collaboration Rule, Multi-Mode e*Way, IQ and Event Type

B. Is all configuration information organized into a logical project

C. Is stored in a file with the extension .rdb on each respective Participating Host

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

The default Schema:

A. Contains templates of configuration files and Monk scripts

B. Contains templates of ETD files

C. Contains user created and modified files for all users

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

The file system threshold is available only when a function of the:

A. Registry Service is customized

B. Installer Service is running

C. Control Broker Service is configured to control the hard drive

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

How do you import an external file and register it in an e*Gate Schema?

A. Use the stcinstd.exe to import the file

B. Use the Import Module option

C. Use the Commit to Sandbox option

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

When upgrading from previous versions of e*Gate, a user may be prompted (by the installation wizard) to back up RDB files, SeeBeyond recommends backing up these files because:

A. They contain information about the e*Gate security system

B. They contain configuration information for Participating Hosts and Schemas installed on the system

C. They contain all configuration information for a single Schema

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Files that have advisory locks placed upon them by the Team Registry feature may be “unlocked” when:

A. The user who checked out the file promotes the file

B. The user who checked out the file, removes the file from the Sandbox without promoting it

C. The user exits the e*Gate Editor without ever saving the file

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10

When deleting a Schema, which e*Gate service must be stopped?

A. The Control Broker service for the Schema to be deleted

B. The e*Gate Registry Service

C. The Lightweight Installer Service

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13

The e*Gate GUI Host may be installed on which supported platforms?

A. Windows 98

B. Windows 2000

C. Unix HP (via Exceed)

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

The role of the Control Broker component is to:

A. Start and stop processes

B. Selectively forward alert, status, and configuration messages to the appropriate GUIs

C. Collect log events and insert them into the logs database

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

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