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QUESTION 2

Which two features are included under the Cisco SMB Support Assistant? ( Choose two.)

A. Next Business day hardware replacement

B. Application Software Upgrades

C. Automatic priority 1 TAC cases

D. Open a service request with the SMB TAC 24 Hours a day, 7 days a week

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3

Certkiller .com is concerned about the security in the perimeter of the network. Which three Cisco products can you offer to Certkiller .com? ( Choose three.)

A. Integrated Services Routers

B. Firewall Appliances

C. Cisco Unified CallManager

D. Multilayer switch with enhanced image

E. Cisco Unity

F. VPN Concentrators

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 5

Which three critical elements does the Cisco Integrated Security Solution incorporate? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Storage Solution

B. Cisco Threat Defense Solution

C. Cisco Trust and Identity Management Solution

D. Cisco Switching Solution

E. Cisco Content Networking Solution

F. Cisco Secure Connectivity

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6

Which three components of the Cisco SMB Assistant Service? (Choose thee.)

A. Advanced replacement on the next business day

B. Support for every Cisco Product

C. Cases Opened Via E-mail or Telephone at any time

D. Immediate Support from the Cisco TAC Engineers

E. NBD callback from a Specialized Engineer During Regular Business Hours

F. Support for low-end products only

Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 10

What is the benefit of implementing a Cisco end-to-end solution?

A. It enables the network to work as a unified whole

B. It maximizes the network security

C. It increases the cost of the equipment

D. It reduces the cost of the equipment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which three beneficial features are found on the cisco.com website? (Choose three.)

A. Online solution troubleshooting

B. Knowledge transfer resources

C. Network Management and Diagnostic tools

D. Tools to Minimize the risk of network downtime

E. Online hardware replacement

F. Online product and technology information

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 19

If Certkiller .com has a problem with the hardware, which two options does the Cisco SMRTnet Contract Offer?( Choose two.)

A. Cisco IOS upgrade, including the most recent patches and bug fixes

B. OnSite Support

C. Advanced Hardware Replacement

D. No Hardware Replacement

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21

Certkiller .com wants to connect Cisco IP Phones and Cisco Aironet Access Points to the network. The customer also wants to use the PoE features included in the Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series Switches. Which two models can provide this features? (Choose two.)

A. WS-CE500G-12TC

B. WS-CE500-24PC

C. WS-CE500-24TT

D. WS-CE500-24LC

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24

For which of the following campus LAN area is the Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series Switch most suitable?

A. Backbone Area

B. Access Area

C. Core Area

D. Distribution Area

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28

Which two management-software applications can you use to manage the Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series Switches? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Network Assistant

B. Cisco Security Device Manager

C. Cisco Device Manager

D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: AC

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Latest update version 70-169 Microsoft real exam questions and answers 2014-09-17

QUESTION 1

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. You create an email-enabled security group named Accounting. You add the user accounts of all accounting employees and their supervisor to this security group. You need to ensure that all email messages that are sent to the Accounting security group are retained indefinitely and that all users in the group can access the messages. What should you do?

A. Enable journaling of all email messages on the Exchange server.

B. Create a public folder and grant the Owner permission level to the Accounting group.

C. Modify the Accounting group properties to place messages in the Accounting public folder.

D. Modify the accounting supervisor’s mailbox properties and supply an external delivery address.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. You need to ensure that User1 can manage standard user accounts. You must achieve this goal without granting User1 other administrative permissions. What should you do?

A. In Active Directory Users and Computers, add User1 to the Administrators Group.

B. In Active Directory Users and Computers, add User1 to the Account Operators Group.

C. In the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console, add User1s account to the Windows SBS 2011 Administrators Group.

D. In the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console, change User1s user role from Standard User to Network Administrator.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

You are the off-site administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. An on-site user named User1 requires access to the Windows SBS 2011 Standard server Desktop in order to assist you with your administrative tasks. User1 is currently assigned the Standard user role. User1 reports that she is unable to log on to the Windows SBS 2011 Standard server, either locally or remotely. You need to ensure that User1 can access the Windows SBS 2011 Standard server Desktop both locally and remotely. What should you do?

A. Add the User1 account to the Windows SBS Administrators group.

B. Add the User1 account to the built-in Server Operators group. Create a new user role based on the User1 account.

C. Change the user role of the User1 account from Standard User to Network Administrator.

D. Change the user role of the User1 account from Standard User to Standard User with administration links

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. The Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard network has a shared printer that is dedicated to invoice printing. Only authorized users should be able to print to this printer. You create a security group named Invoice Printing and add the authorized users to this group. You need to ensure that only the Invoice Printing group can print to the invoice printer. What should you do?

A. Grant the Invoice Printing group the Print, Manage this printer, and Manage documents permissions on the invoice printer.

B. Grant the Invoice Printing group the Print permission, only. Deny the Everyone group the Print permission on the invoice printer.

C. Add the Invoice Printing security group to the Standard User role. Grant the Invoice Printing group the Print permission.

D. Create a new user role based on Standard User, and add the Invoice Printing security group to the role. Grant the Invoice Printing group the Print permission, and remove the Everyone group.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. The Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard network includes a branch office. Users at this branch office connect to the network by using either individual VPN connections or by using Remote Web Access (RWA). The branch office adds four new users and computers. You need to join the four new computers to the SBS domain. What should you do on each of the new computers?

A. Create a VPN connection, and use http://connect.

B. Create a VPN connection, and run the netdom command.

C. Download the Certificate Distribution package by using RWA. Import the certificate.

D. Download the Certificate Distribution package by using RWA. Run the InstallCertificate application.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. After completing a migration from Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2003 to Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard, you notice that not all users are displayed in the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console. You need to ensure that all user accounts that were migrated are displayed in the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console and that user permissions are not affected. What should you do?

A. Move the users to the SBSUsers Organizational Unit.

B. Delete the existing user accounts. Create new user accounts by using the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console.

C. Modify the msSBSCreationState property of the user accounts that were migrated.

D. Modify the msSBSRoleShowInAUW property of the user accounts that were migrated.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. A user changes his legal name. You need to change the users logon name and email address to reflect the name change. You must achieve this goal without affecting the users access to network resources or his Exchange mailbox. What should you do?

A. In the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console, remove the users account. Create a new user account with the new name and the same User role.

B. In the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console, edit the user account properties by changing the values in the Name fields and the email address field.

C. In the Exchange Management Console, edit the users mailbox by changing the values in the Name field and the email address field.

D. In the Exchange Management Console, remove the users mailbox. Create a new mailbox with the users new name. Assign the new mailbox to the users Active Directory account.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. You create a Security Group named Accounting. You assign the Accounting security group permissions to specific folders and programs. You need to create an email address that can be used to send messages to mailboxes of all members of the Accounting security group. What should you do?

A. In the Exchange Management Console, create an additional email address for the accounting supervisor.

B. In the Windows Small Business Server 2011 Standard Console, add an email address to the Accounting Security Group.

C. Create an email address for a mail enabled Sharepoint library. Grant permissions to the Accounting Security Group.

D. Create an email address for a mail enabled public folder. Grant permissions to members of the Accounting Security Group.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You are the administrator for a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. The Sales security group has access to sensitive sales dat

A. User1 is a member of the Sales security group. User1s email account has an email quota of 10 GB. Your company hires User2 and User3 to work in the Sales department. You need to ensure that User2 and User3 have the same email quota and access to sensitive sales data that User1 has. What should you do?

B. Create a new User Role based on User1. Apply this role to User2 and User3.

C. Create a new User Role based on Standard User. Apply this role to User1, User2, and User3.

D. Create a new security group. Add User1, User2, and User3 to the new security group.

E. Create a new Organization Unit (OU). Move the User1, User2, and User3 accounts into the new OU.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You are assisting a business owner with a network that runs Windows Small Business Server (SBS) 2011 Standard. The business owner purchases a new Windows 7 Professional computer. The business owner names the computer Client1 and joins it to the domain by using the Windows 7 Control Panel. The user of Client1 reports that shared faxing is not available. You need to ensure that shared faxing is available on Client1. What should you do?

A. Add the user to the local Administrators group on Client1.

B. Create a custom outbound firewall rule on Client1 that enables UDP port 444.

C. Open an elevated command prompt on Client1, and run the Gpupdate /force command.

D. Remove Client1 from the domain and then rejoin Client1 to the domain by running the Connect Wizard.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

You configure your portable computer to use Windows XP Professional as well.

Which of the following power schemes can help you conserve power while having the monitor always on?

A. The Always On power scheme.

B. The Home Office/Desk power scheme.

C. The Max Battery power scheme.

D. The Portable/Laptop power scheme.

E. The Presentation power scheme.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ExamReal.com users in the Sales department take their portable computers to a conference room for a weekly meeting. Because these meetings can last a long time, the users need a simple method to manually place their computers in a low-power state. They also need their computers to start as quickly as possible. What should you do to configure the computers to meet these requirements?

A. Configure the power button on each computer to enable hibernation.

B. Configure the computers to enable standby mode when the lid is closed.

C. Configure the computers to use the Presentation power scheme.

D. Configure the computers to use the Max Battery power scheme.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

The entire ExamReal.com users Finance department use both desktop and portable computers. Each

computer in the research department has a four-port USB hub for I/O devices.

A ExamReal.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Finance department.

One morning Rory Allen purchases and connects a portable USB hard disk to the USB hub attached to his portable computer. However, the port on the USB hub shuts down and the hard disk does not function. The USB hard disk functions properly when it is attached to the USB hub connected to the user’s desktop computer. All other USB devices function properly when they are attached to the portable computer’s USB hub. What should you do to ensure that the USB hard disk can function properly when connected to the USB hub on the user’s portable computer?

A. Instruct Rory Allen to replace the USB hard disk’s USB cable with a shorter USB cable.

B. Assign an IRQ to the USB hub in the computer’s system BIOS.

C. Instruct Rory Allen to replace the portable computer’s bus-powered USB hub with a self-powered USB hub.

D. Disable all USB power management features for the USB root hub.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

A ExamReal.com client named Kara Lang has asked you to configuring Windows XP on a computer that

has generic components.

Which if the following tools can you use in case you need to troubleshoot driver issues?

A. The Driver Verifier.

B. The Windows Driver Model.

C. The Driver signing.

D. The Driver scanner.

E. The System File Checker.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

You have received instruction from the CIO to use the Driver Verifier on one desktop computer.

What should you do?

A. add a registry entry and restart your computer

B. add a registry entry. There is no need to restart your computer

C. run safe mode and enable it

D. run safe mode and set the boot.ini file accordingly

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

You have received instruction from the CIO to use the Driver Verifier his Windows XP Professional

computer.

Is it possible for you to change the location of the driver file that comes with Windows XP Professional?

A. Yes, go modify a registry entry and restart your computer.

B. Yes, go add a registry entry. There is no need to restart your computer.

C. Yes, just run safe mode with the /newdir switch.

D. Yes, just run safe mode and set the boot.ini file accordingly.

E. You cannot do this.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ExamReal.com client named Kara Lang has asked you to configuring Windows XP her computer. There are devices on this computer that are not officially supported by XP. You are requesting drivers from multiple sources. It appears that the system is up and running but is quite unstable with the new drivers. What feature of the Driver Verifier should you use to view the outstanding allocations the driver has at any point in time?

A. Driver unload checking

B. Driver load checking

C. Driver failure checking

D. Driver leak checking

E. Pool Leakage Detection

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

The CIO of your company wants to know the preferred way in Windows XP to enable the Driver Verifier.

A. via Verifier.exe

B. modify a registry entry and restart your computer

C. add a registry entry

D. use recovery console

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. You are configuring Windows XP’s Driver Verifier utility. Which of the following are NOT the valid statuses of the Driver Verifier? (Choose all that apply)

A. Loaded

B. Unloaded

C. Never Loaded

D. Initialized

E. Checking

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 15

You work as the network administrator at ExamReal.com. The ExamReal.com network consists of a single

Active Directory domain named ExamReal.com. All servers on the ExamReal.com network run Windows

Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

You have received instruction from the CIO to scan all of the protected files in your XP computer to verify

their versions.

What command or tool should you use if you want to go ahead?

A. Driver Verifier

B. Windows Driver Model

C. Driver signing

D. Add/Remove Hardware

E. System File Checker

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1

A new MARS appliance has been installed in the Certkiller network. Which protocol is used for transporting the event data from Cisco IPS 5.0 and later devices to the Cisco Security MARS appliance?

A. RDEP over SSL

B. SDEE over SSL

C. SSH

D. SYSLOG

E. All of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs Certkiller, is curious about attack

methodologies. Match the technology with the appropriate description.

Use each technology once and only once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3

Which Cisco management product provides a Security Audit wizard?

A. Cisco Security Auditor

B. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution

C. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager

D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A new MARS appliance has been installed in the Certkiller network. Which three features of Cisco Security MARS provide for identity and mitigation of threats? (Choose three)

A. Determines security incidents based on device messages, events, and sessions

B. Provides incident analysis that is topologically aware for visualization and replay

C. Integrates with Trend Micro to clean infected hosts

D. Performs mitigation on Layer 2 ports and at Layer 3 choke points

E. Provides a security solution for preventing DDoS attacks

F. Pushes signatures to Cisco IPS to keep viruses from entering the network

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5

How is Cisco IOS Control Plane Policing achieved?

A. By adding a service-policy to virtual terminal lines and the console port

B. By applying a QoS policy in control plane configuration mode

C. By disabling unused services

D. By rate-limiting the exchange of routing protocol updates

E. By using AutoQoS to rate-limit the control plane traffic

F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your trainee Sandra is curious about Network Security Lifecycles. Match each action with the appropriate task.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

What is a benefit of the Cisco Integrated Services Routers?

A. Intel Xeon CPUs

B. Built-in event correlation engine

C. Built-in encryption acceleration

D. Customer programmable ASIC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

The Certkiller network has just implemented CSA for all end hosts. What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments? (Choose three)

A. Application control

B. Control of executable content

C. Identification of vulnerabilities

D. Probing of systems for compliance

E. Real-time analysis of network traffic

F. System hardening

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit below. As each spoke site is added, spoke-to-spoke and spoke-to-hub connectivity will be required. What is the best VPN implementation option in this scenario? Exhibit:

A. GRE over IPSec with dynamic routing

B. IPSec DMVPN

C. IPSec Easy VPN

D. V3PN

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

The Certkiller network is using GRE on their IPSec VPN WAN. What is a benefit of IPSec GRE?

A. Bandwidth conservation

B. No need for a separate client

C. Full support of Cisco dynamic routing protocols

D. Support of dynamic connections

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account and introduced policy-based admin auttiohration, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the appliance? (choose all that apply) (a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its configuraoon from a backup

(c)

Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.

A.

a only

B.

a and b only

C.

a and c only

D.

a and d only

E.

All of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel

A. g. SSL tunneling)

B. True

C. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL dat

A.

B. True

C. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through .

A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface

B. Visual Policy Manager only

C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?

A. http://forums.bluecoot.com

B. http://services.bluecoar.com

C. http://download.bluecoat.com

D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which ProxySG technology uses the Gaca processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?

A. Blue Coat Reporter

B. MACH5

C. BCWF

D. ProxySG Services

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that apply)

(a)

IWA

(b)

RADIUS

(C)

LDAP

(d)

TACACS

A.

a, b and d only

B.

b, c and d only

C.

a, b andc only

D.

All of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services? (Choose all that apply)

(a)

All

(b)

Any

(c)

Explicit

(d)

Transparent

A.

a, c and d only

B.

a, b and c only

C.

b, c andd only

D.

All of the above

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A ProxySG is designed to do which of rhe following? (choose all that apply) (a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content stripping, and HTTP header analysis.

A. a and b only

B. b and c only

C. a and c only

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?

A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media

B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash

C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A scope management plan in which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared

A. Initiation

B. Colllect requirements

C. Define Scope

D. Verify Scope

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule

C. Actual project cost and schedule

D. Revised Project cost and schedule

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

what is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product

B. Cost benefit

C. Stakeholder

D. Research

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stackholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis

C. Project records

D. Peformance reviews

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deterioring?

A. Control chart

B. Earned Value

C. Variance

D. Trend

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

During what process is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Controlling

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Scope verification is PRIMARLY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables

C. Approval of the scope statement

D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

Which of the following is an example of contract administration?

A. Negociating the ontract

B. Authorizing contractor work

C. Developing the statement of work

D. Establishing evaluation criteria

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A customer wants to implement LAN-free backups to improve backup and recovery times in their virtualized environment, Which of the following is a requirement?

A. SSP

B. NPIV

C. FCoE

D. vSCSI

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which tool can help identity the firmware versions for a Power System server?

A. Workload Estimator (WLE)

B. System Planning Tool (SPT)

C. Inventory Services Tool (1ST)

D. Fixed Level Recommendation Tool (FLRT)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A customer wants to consolidate workloads which require AIX 5.3 onto a POWER7 770. The customer is comparing rPerfs to determine the size of the system. Which of the following needs to be considered when determining the system size using rPerfs?

A. I/O

B. Disk

C. SMT

D. Memory Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

A customer has 14 POWER4 servers and 1 POWER5 server. The customer would like to consolidate their existing workload onto a POWER7 platform. Which tool can be used to recommend a consolidated server solution?

A. Workload Manager

B. Workload Estimator

C. System Planning Tool

D. Performance Management Toolkit

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A customer is planning to add a large number of NES clients to their environment, and is concerned about response time. Which of the following is a primary consideration when adding NFS clients?

A. NES client CPU

B. NFS server license count

C. SAN network infrastructure

D. Ethernet network infrastructure

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

A customer is deciding between Storwize V3700 and a Storwize V7000. Which statement is true with respect to the connectivity for these devices?

A. Both require 1Gb Ethernet connections.

B. Both require 8Gb Fibre Channel connections.

C. The Storwize V7000 requires 10Gb Ethernet connections.

D. The Storwize V3700 requires 8Gb Fibre Channel connections.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A customer would like to implement a two-node PowerHA cluster using two Power 740 servers. A major requirement is for shared storage to support up to 400,000 IOPS. What storage should be considered?

A. XIV

B. DS8870

C. StorwizeV7000

D. FlashSystem 820

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which of the following applications is available on PowerLinux and not on AIX?

A. GNUCC

B. Oracle RAC

C. Apache Hadoop

D. IBM DB2 Express Edition

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which physical processors are initially part of the default shared processor pool?

A. All active physical processors

B. All physical processors excluding the folded ones

C. All physical processors within a processor enclosure (CEO)

D. All installed physical processors in a system, including CoD processors

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

A customer wants to implement LAN-free backups to improve backup and recovery times in their virtualized environment, Which of the following is a requirement?

A. SSP

B. NPIV

C. FCoE

D. vSCSI

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

An AIX 6 customer wants to know how long IBM will provide new fixes for a given AIX Technology Level (TL). The current IBM strategy is to provide what length of support to customers with SWMA?

A. Approximately 2 years if the customer is running any TL

B. Approximately 1 year if the customer is running TL6 or later

C. Approximately 3 years if the customer is running TL6 or later

D. Approximately 5 years if the customer is running TL6 or later

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

A customer would like to consolidate several AIX 6.1 LPARs from POWER5 servers to a POWER7

QUESTION 6

Which of the following helps make GPES file systems highly available?

A. Caching read-intensive filesystems

B. Centralized filesystem management

C. Dynamic file placement and optimization

D. Ability to configure multiple paths to data

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

A customer has 14 POWER4 servers and 1 POWER5 server. The customer would like to consolidate their existing workload onto a POWER7 platform. Which tool can be used to recommend a consolidated server solution?

A. Workload Manager

B. Workload Estimator

C. System Planning Tool

D. Performance Management Toolkit

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A customer is planning to add a large number of NES clients to their environment, and is concerned about response time. Which of the following is a primary consideration when adding NFS clients?

A. NES client CPU

B. NFS server license count

C. SAN network infrastructure

D. Ethernet network infrastructure

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

A customer is deciding between Storwize V3700 and a Storwize V7000. Which statement is true with respect to the connectivity for these devices?

A. Both require 1Gb Ethernet connections.

B. Both require 8Gb Fibre Channel connections.

C. The Storwize V7000 requires 10Gb Ethernet connections.

D. The Storwize V3700 requires 8Gb Fibre Channel connections.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which of the following applications is available on PowerLinux and not on AIX?

A. GNUCC

B. Oracle RAC

C. Apache Hadoop

D. IBM DB2 Express Edition

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which physical processors are initially part of the default shared processor pool?

A. All active physical processors

B. All physical processors excluding the folded ones

C. All physical processors within a processor enclosure (CEO)

D. All installed physical processors in a system, including CoD processors

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTIONs should you ask when assessing an organization’s security needs? (Choose two.)

A. Are you exploring new cloud business models?

B. Are you enforcing the same security policies consistently across your organization?

C. Are you using the latest hardware and software versions for your security devices?

D. Are you using single-vendor security equipment?

E. What are the operating hours of your security response team?

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3

Which two statements about CVD and SBA are true? (Choose two.)

A. SBA guides are available for enterprise deployments only.

B. CVD includes everything from rough designs to tested versions of software code.

C. Gold partners have access to a demo lab for each validated design.

D. CVD is technology-oriented, while SBA is market- and solution-oriented.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4

Which two statements about standard clients for wireless, wired, and VPN are true? (Choose two.)

A. Most clients have wireless and VPN clients integrated already.

B. Services of integrated clients differ per OS and include wireless clients, IPsec clients, and L2TP and PPTP clients.

C. Standard clients are easy to manage by a central IT organization.

D. Android mobile devices include the Cisco IPsec client.

E. Apple iOS clients do not include the Cisco IPsec client.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

A. Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-584 Exam into one product.

B. Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.

C. Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.

D. Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which statement about SGACL is true?

A. SGACL does not allow customers to keep the existing local design at the access layer.

B. SGACL allows customers to apply or change policies that meet today’s business requirements.

C. With SGACL, traffic that is received by a device gets tagged at egress and is then potentially filtered at ingress, based on the previously assigned tag.

D. With SGACL, all network devices belonging to the same group automatically enforce the same policy.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which statement about MACsec is true?

A. MACsec provides Layer 2 hop-by-hop encryption, based on the 802.1AE standard.

B. Cisco AnyConnect Release 3.0 supports both roles: supplicant and authenticator?

C. 802.1X protection includes the CMD field, which is used to carry the security group tag value.

D. MACsec does not work between any MACsec-capable supplicant and authenticator.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which statement about wireless LAN security is true?

A. Cisco CleanAir is a technology that allows you to detect the distance of a wireless device from an access point.

B. Cisco Aironet 3500 and 3600 Series Access Points do not have an integrated spectrum analyzer that detects interferers.

C. Classification occurs at the access point; interference impact and data are then sent to the wireless LAN controller.

D. The wireless LAN controller stores data for location, history, and troubleshooting purposes.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which statement accurately describes web authentication for secure guest access?

A. With central web authentication, the WLAN controller serves the web portal.

B. With central web authentication, Cisco ISE serves the web portal.

C. With central web authentication, the WLAN controller sends the username and password to Cisco ISE for authentication.

D. With central web authentication, the WLAN access point sends the username and password to Cisco ISE for authentication.

E. With local web authentication, the username and password are checked at the WLAN access point.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

Which of these products is the best choice to prevent undesired content from being sent through a guest connection?

A. Cisco ISR G2 or Cisco ASA and ScanSafe “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-584 Exam

B. Host IPS via Cisco ISE posture

C. IPS

D. Personal firewall via ISE posture

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Which two options show the correct associations of use cases with VPN technologies? (Choose two.)

A. SP or large enterprise: MPLS, VPLS, SSL VPN

B. SP or large enterprise: MPLS, VPLS, OTV

C. Site-to-site VPN: GRE, DMVPN, FlexVPN, GET-VPN, IPsec

D. Site-to-site VPN: OTV, DMVPN, GRE, GET-VPN, IPsec

E. Client access: SSL VPN, EZ-VPN, FlexVPN, MPLS

Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 2

Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?

A. ISDN

B. Console

C. Serial WAN

D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?

A. ATM

B. Enhanced Serial

C. Encryption Card

D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?

A. SFP Interface Slot

B. CF Memory Card slot

C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces

D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON

AC OK (red) – ON

A. Power is OFF or has failed

B. A Runtime error has occurred

C. Power is ON and voltage is normal

D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?

A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity

B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity

C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity

D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?

A.

B. [Router]

C. [Router-ospf-1]

D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?

A. undo start

B. reset start

C. reset to factory

D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 8

Type the command that reboots the PIX Firewall

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

What is the function of the support tool in the PIX MC?

A. to allow technical support to remotely administer the PIX MC

B. to show available support options for the PIX MC

C. to create a file that captures information about the PIX MC

D. to place the PIX MC in safe mode so you can troubleshoot it

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16

What is the default polling period that the PIX Firewall uses to check for updates on the AUS?

A. 1440 seconds

B. 720 minutes

C. 1440 minutes

D. 2880 minutes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18

Which statement about Telnet and the PIX Firewall is true?

A. You can enable Telnet on all interfaces except the outside interface.

B. You can enable Telnet on all interfaces, but the PIX Firewall requires that all Telnet traffic to all interfaces be IPSec protected.

C. You can enable Telnet on all interfaces, but the PIX Firewall requires that all Telnet traffic to the outside interface be IPSec protected.

D. Telnet connections to the PIX Firewall are not permitted.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23

Which command enables intrusion detection in the PIX Firewall?

A. shun

B. enable ids

C. ip audit

D. ids enable

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25

Why use the shun command?

A. PIX Firewall does not support shunning

B. to enable the PIX Firewall to detect and block intrusion attempts

C. you know the IP address of an attacking host and want the PIX Firewall to drop packets containing its source address

D. you know the IP address of an attacking host and want the PIX Firewall to drop packets containing its destination address

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31

Your new network administrator has recently modified your PIX Firewall’s configuration. You are suddenly experiencing security breaches involving Internet mail. What change did the administrator make?

A. He disabled the PIX Firewall’s mailport fixup.

B. He disabled the PIX Firewall’s smtp fixup.

C. He enabled the PIX Firewall’s ils fixup on port 25.

D. He defined the ports on which to activate Mail Guard.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35

Which statement about authorization and the PIX Firewall is true?

A. The PIX Firewall supports downloadable ACLs using RADIUS.

B. The PIX Firewall does not support per-user authorization.

C. The PIX Firewall does not support TACACS authorization.

D. The PIX Firewall supports downloadable ACLs using TACACS .

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40

How does the PDM running on the FWSM differ from PDM running on the PIX Firewall?

A. When running on the FWSM, the PDM has a Startup Wizard.

B. When running on the FWSM, the PDM has a VPN Wizard.

C. When running on the FWSM, the PDM does not have a VPN tab.

D. When running on the FWSM, the PDM does not have a System Properties tab.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43

Which statements about creating VPNs in PDM are true? Choose two.

A. When the inactivity timeout for all IPSec SAs have expired for a given VPN Client, the tunnel is established.

B. PDM supports tunnel policies that are not bound to an interface.

C. To create a crypto map, select crypto maps from the IPSec branch of the categories tree.

D. PDM hides the concept of crypto map.

E. After you create a tunnel policy in the VPN tab’s tunnel policy window, you must bind it to an interface from the Access Rules tab.

F. PDM does not support tunnel policies that are not bound to an interface. You must select an interface for a tunnel policy when you create it.

Correct Answer: DF

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QUESTION 1

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You discover that some mailboxes have been infected by malware. However there are no malware

infection notifications in the Forefront Protection for Exchange Server Console.

You need to immediately check specific mailboxes to see if they are infected by the malware.

What should you do?

A. You should run a Forefront Client Security scan on the client computers.

B. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform a real-time scan of the mailboxes.

C. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform an on-demand scan of the mailboxes.

D. You should install Microsoft Security Essentials on client computers.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

How would you configure FPE to enable spam filtering?

A. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSEScheduledScan cmdlet.

B. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run Set-FseSpamFiltering the cmdlet.

C. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FseSpamContentCheck cmdlet.

D. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSERealtimeScan cmdlet.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

The subject line in each of the emails is: “Free access to our new online tournament!” You note that the sender email address is spoofed to appear to be from a different domain for each email.

How can you block this spam attack in future?

A. You should configure an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. You should configure a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. You should configure a keyword filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. You should configure a sender-domain custom filter in FPE.

E. You should configure a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

Four servers running Windows 2008 Server host the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.

Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You need to configure email scanning in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010.

How should you configure FPE to scan all emails sent from within the ABC.com domain to email recipients in the ABC.com domain?

A. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

B. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

C. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

D. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

E. You should configure FPE to perform Outbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The network environment is secured using Microsoft Forefront.

A server named ABC-ShPoint1 runs Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010. The SharePoint system is protected by Forefront Protection 2010 for SharePoint (FPSP).

How can you configure the environment to ensure that scanning is performed on all documents that pass through the SharePoint Portal?

A. By logging into the SharePoint portal and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

B. By logging into the SharePoint Central Administration website and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

C. By logging into the Forefront Protection for SharePoint console and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

D. By logging into IIS Manager on the SharePoint Web Server and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

E. By logging into the Security Centre on the SharePoint Database Server and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

How can you block a future spam attack based on repeated words in the body of the email?

A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.

E. by configuring a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

You examine the email headers and discover a common source IP address.

How can you block a future spam attack based on the IP address?

A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.

E. by configuring a connection filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You need to ensure the maximum security when users access their emails on the Exchange servers. You want to ensure that emails are scanned for as much malware as possible.

Which two of the following actions should you perform? (Choose two).

A. You should enable on-demand scanning.

B. You should enable real-time scanning.

C. You should select the option to scan message body.

D. You should select the option to scan after engine update.

E. You should increase the scanning timeout value.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the

Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

A new scan engine definition is released for Exchange Server 2010.

How can you immediately apply new definitions in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server?

A. by running the Set-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.

B. by running the Start-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.

C. by running the Get-FseSignatureOptions PowerShell cmdlet.

D. by running the Set-FseEngineManagement PowerShell cmdlet.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers. Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You receive reports from users saying that they receive undeliverable mail bounce messages for emails that they did not send. You suspect that the sender field has been forged in the failed messages.

How can you ensure that users do not receive undeliverable mail messages for emails that they did not send?

A. You should configure a sender filter on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

B. You should configure a backscatter filter on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

C. You should disable Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages on ABC-Edge1 and ABC- Edge2.

D. You should configure a separate Exchange mailbox to receive all Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

What is the DirectoryIndex Apache configuration directive used for?

A. Printing indexes of directories when they do not have an index.html file

B. The default page to show when the user requests an index of a directory

C. Directories to ignore

D. Directories that have access restrictions

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Samba is used for:

A. Sharing resources from a Linux machine to a Windows machine

B. Accessing resources from a Windows machine, for example mounting an SMB share on a Linux machine

C. Perform password administration.

D. Configure NFS shares.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

What option to dhcpd is used to specify a certain location for its configuration file?

A. -cf

B. -c

C. -d

D. -f

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

What DHCP server option is used to specify the DNS server to clients?

A. domain-name-servers

B. dns

C. domain-name

D. routers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

In order to open up an SSH shell on a remote machine called ‘tiger’ using the login name of ‘admin’, what would be the proper command line for this?

A. openssh -l admin tiger

B. ssh -l admin tiger

C. ssh admin@tiger

D. sshd tiger admin

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

You can find all of the services managed by xinetd by looking at which of the following file or directory?

A. /etc/xinetd.d

B. /etc/inetd.conf

C. /etc/rc.d/init.d

D. /etc/xinetd.conf

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

‘serviceconf’ can be used to control xinetd managed services.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

What is the difference between the DROP and REJECT targets in iptables?

A. REJECT will send an error packet back to the source system, whereas DROP will not

B. DROP will send an error packet back to the source system, whereas REJECT will not

C. They are equivalent

D. DROP is invalid, DENY must be used

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

Software RAID, such as the Linux MD driver, are dependent on CPU as opposed to hardware RAID, which is implemented on the interface controller itself.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

In order to set the time zone to ‘US/Eastern’ via Kickstart, what must be in the Kickstart configuration file?

A. tz US/Eastern

B. timezone US/Eastern

C. It is not possible to set time zone

D. timeconfig US/Eastern

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 3

An x86 customer released an RFP for new systems. One requirement is that the configuration must include software for automated Windows OS deployments. Which of the following meets the customer’s requirement?

A. IMM Advanced Upgrade

B. IBM Systems Director Express Edition for x86

C. IBM Systems Director Standard Edition for x86

D. IBM Systems Director Enterprise Edition for x86

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A customer is concerned about rising power costs, and the limited space they have left in the data center. They have been doing some research and would like to know if they should implement virtualization. Which of the following product families should be discussed with them?

A. PureApplication System

B. x3250 M4 servers and VMware

C. BladeCenter, blades and VMware

D. x3650 M4 servers, networking and racks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Solution design has shown that a PureFlex prospect requires more storage capacity than what is included with a base PureFlex System Standard offering. Which of the following would address the additional storage requirement?

A. Switch the solution to a PureFlex System Enterprise configuration

B. Add features to the configuration to include more storage capacity

C. Engage IBM Techline to perform a capacity assessment of the current storage environment

D. Open an RPQ or SPORE request so the base offering can be modified to include additional storage capacity

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

The System x sales professional is in a meeting with the CIO, VP of Infrastructure, Chief Architect, Operations Manager and the lead Systems Administrator for x86 servers. The sales professional is getting ready to present a solution for rack optimized servers. After everyone introduces themselves, what should you as the seller do to ensure a successful presentation?

A. Understand the role each person in the room has relative to your proposal

B. The executives are only interested in pricing, so do not get into any detail

C. Gear your presentation to the CIO since the CIO is the highest level person in the room

D. Make sure your presentation is suitably technical to appeal to the Chief Architect and lead Systems Administrator

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A manufacturing customer is interested in a Big Data warehouse solution and are also talking to HP. Which of the following solutions is the most direct starting point for a conversation with the customer?

A. SAP HANA

B. x3850 X5

C. iDataPlex

D. PureApplication System

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

A client is designing a new high density data center for their growing IT infrastructure. The customer asks the System x sales professional for advice on this project. Which of the following is the primary constraint to high density data center buildouts?

A. Power and cooling

B. Rack space and power

C. Cabling and bandwidth

D. Bandwidth and rack space

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

A customer is looking for a computer solution for their remote branch offices. They have a small computer room in each branch office. There are six virtualized workloads that each need two cores of processing power and 8GB of memory. They need to be able to failover workloads within the branch office. Space, remote management and future expansion are the primary drivers of this solution. Which of the following System x or PureFlex solutions would be the least expensive choice for this customer?

A. PureSystems with external disk

B. A tower server with internal disk

C. PureSystems with integrated V7000

D. Rack optimized with shared external disk

QUESTION 15

A prospective PureFlex customer is also considering Cisco UCS. Which of the following would be most appropriate to assist a seller in defining Flex advantages compared to a specific Cisco UCS solution?

A. ATS

B. IGF

C. Bidwinroom

D. Competeline

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16

A customer is looking for the most servers that can be placed into one rack for the customer HPC. Power consumption and heat output are secondary considerations. Which of the following is the best solution to propose to this customer?

A. x3850 X5

B. iDataPlex

C. BladeCenter

D. PureFlex with x220 compute nodes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17

A client traditionally purchased Blades and BladeCenter H chassis from IBM. They are currently looking to refresh their datacenter and swap out their chassis and servers. The sales professional recommends they go with a Flex System Chassis. Which one of the following statements is a benefit of a Flex System Chassis over a BladeCenter H Chassis?

A. The Flex Chassis has more server bays

B. The Flex Chassis takes up less rack space

C. There is a management appliance you can use with the Flex Chassis

D. Flex Chassis has fewer power supplies and is more energy efficient

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 55

Which of these statements correctly describes the Cisco 3800 Series integrated services routers? (Select one.)

A. The 3800 Series routers offer IP-converged networking for small to midsize branches and businesses with multiple throughput and up to T1/E1-level connectivity.

B. The 3800 Series routers are both fixed and modular, designed to meet a variety of small- to large-business network needs.

C. The 3800 Series routers are designed for customers that want the widest variety of network interfaces and services in an integrated services router.

D. The 3800 Series routers are fixed-configuration routers for small-office LANs.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which solution set supports NetFlow?

A. Cisco 7300 Series

B. Cisco 6500 Series

C. Cisco 7200 Series

D. Cisco 7600 Series

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 87

With an option of 24 or 48 ports per switch in the 3750 Series, what is the maximum number of switch ports that can be combined together in one stack? (Choose one.)

A. 192

B. 288

C. 432

D. 768

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43

Edge routing is supported on which routers? (Select One.)

A. Cisco 800, 1800, 2800, 3800, 7200, 7300, 7600 Series

B. Cisco 800, 1800, 2800, 3800 Series only

C. Cisco 7200, 7300, 7600 Series only

D. Cisco 7600 Series only

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 92

Which statement is appropriate for the Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch? (Select one.)

A. Ideal for networks with desktops, printers, and wireless LAN access

B. Designed for workgroups and wiring closets

C. Gigabit Ethernet connectivity for small and medium-sized networks

D. Designed for server farm and data center deployments that require wire speed gigabit and ten-gigabit deployments

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions. A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields:

QUESTION 2

You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.

A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.

You need to add validation to the control.

Which code segment should you use?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met. What should you use?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and jQuery. The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address. You need to implement this functionality. How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5

You are developing an application that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service. The application interacts with the service by using the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

You need to authenticate to the WCF service. What should you do?

A. At line 11, add the following lines of code. ,username: yourusername ,password: yourpassword

B. At line 11, add the following line of code. ,credentials: prompt

C. At line 06, replace the code with the following line of code. url: “http://contoso.com/Service.svc/GetCountry? Username=usernameandpassword=psssword”,

D. At line 11, add the following line of code. The username and password will be stored in an XML file. ,credentials: credentials.xml

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server. The page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the page. You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code should you insert at line 03?

A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =

B. xhr.upload.onplaying =

C. xhr.upload.onseeking =

D. xhr.upload.onprogress =

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.

Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web service returns the following JSON

object.

{

“Confirmation”: “1234″, “FirstName”: “John”}

You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.

Which JavaScript code segment should you use?

A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);

B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);

C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);

D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);

Correct Answer: D

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A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.

A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.

You need to add validation to the text box control.

Which HTML should you use?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP

You are developing a web page for runners who register for a race. The page includes a slider control that

allows users to enter their age.

You have the following requirements:

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The most useful ITIL EXIN certification practice questions

QUESTION 1

Where are the statuses of changes recorded?

A. in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

B. in the Known Error database

C. in the Change database

D. in the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?

A. Service Improvement Program (SIP)

B. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. Service Catalogue

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the IT organization, which ITIL process would it be putting in place?

A. Incident Management

B. Problem Management

C. Change Management

D. Availability Management

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?

A. that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently

B. that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services

C. that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster

D. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk?

A. The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned.

B. The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available.

C. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems.

D. The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

A. the degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer

B. the degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered

C. the degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts

D. the degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity?

A. solving a Problem

B. relating an incident to a Known Error

C. registering Incidents

D. applying temporary fixes

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. What part of the Capacity Management process does this refer to?

A. Modeling

B. Demand Management

C. Application Management

D. Application Sizing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?

A. the sequence in which the change is made

B. the speed with which the change is made

C. the consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.

D. the Request for Change number that the change is assigned

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident?

A. Problem Manager

B. Problem Management staff

C. Service Level Manager

D. Service Desk

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 21

To whom does a PE-router advertise labels, when operating in the default frame mode?

A. The PE-router advertises a label to all of its neighbors.

B. The PE-router only advertises labels to its neighbors in the MPLS domain.

C. The PE-router only advertises labels to its neighbors outside the MPLS domain.

D. The PE-router does not advertise labels. Label advertisement is only done by the core LSR.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38

Exhibit Study the exhibit. All four routers on the Certkiller Ethernet LAN sent out LDP hello messages. What is the set of TCP sessions that will be initiated?

A. Certkiller 1 to Certkiller 2, Certkiller 3 and Certkiller 4

B. Certkiller 2 to Certkiller 1, Certkiller 3 and Certkiller 4

C. Certkiller 3 to Certkiller 1, Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 4

D. Certkiller 4 to Certkiller 1, Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 3

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42

What is a benefit of CEF switching?

A. CEF supports IP source prefix-based switching using the FIB.

B. CEF uses less memory than fast switching uses.

C. CEF is less CPU intensive than fast switching is.

D. CEF provides Netflow statistics with minimum CPU overhead.

E. CEF allows multiple data planes to share a common control plane.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 50

Why would a system administrator use the tag-switching atm maxhopsgloabal configuration command?

A. In large ATM-MPLS networks, the LFIB can become too large. Because of this, it is necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.

B. TDP relies exclusively on hop-count carried in the TDP request and replay packets to detect loops during the downstream-on-demand label allocation.

C. LDP does not support using Router ID to detect routing information in ATM networks during the downstream-on demand label allocation process.

D. Because end-to-end delay can cause problems with some voice applications, it is necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 54

Which statement about configuring frame MPLS over an ATM PVC is true?

A. The VPI/VCI must be manually assigned using a value from the label pool.

B. The VCI/VPI are assigned dynamically by LDP using a value from the label pool.

C. The VPI/VCI must be manually assigned using a value supported by the local ATM switch.

D. The interface automatically learns the VPI/VCI from the local ATM switch and associates it with the defined MPLS.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 66

Which IOS command should you use to display the contents of Label information Base (LIB or TIB)?

A. show tag tdp tib

B. show tag tdp label

C. show tag tdp detail

D. show tag tdp bindings

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 70

What are three benefits of an MPLS VPN? (Choose three)

A. It provides a network-based VPN service.

B. It provides equivalent security to Frame Relay.

C. It eliminates the need for multiple routing protocols.

D. It offers a more scalable solution than other VPN technologies.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 85

Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit.

In which type of MPLS VPN are customers A and B participating?

A. Overlapping MPLS VPN.

B. Simple MPLS VPN.

C. Central services MPLS VPN.

D. Overlay MPLS VPN.

E. Managed CE service MPLS VPN.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 93

How many routing table PE have

A. A PE has one routing table for each VRF

B. A PE has one global routing table for all VRFs

C. A PE has a global routing table and additional routing table for each VRF

D. A PE has a CEF global routing table and additional routing table for each VRF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 97

Which well-known tunneling technology provides network layer authentication and optional encryption to make data transfer over the Internet secure?

A. Layer 2 tunneling

B. GRE

C. IPSec

D. Peer-to-peer

E. Layer 2 forwarding

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

Measured usage is only limited to tracking statistics for billing purposes. It does not encompass the general monitoring of IT resources and related usage reporting. Therefore, measured usage is only relevant to clouds that charge for usage. Select the correct answer.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Service agents are provided only by runtime environments and operating systems. As a result, service agents cannot be custom-developed. Select the correct answer.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A(n) ____________________ cloud is a cloud environment owned by a third-party cloud provider and accessible to external cloud consumers. The IT resources in the cloud are generally offered to cloud consumers at a cost. Select the correct answer.

A. public

B. on-premise

C. private

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following are common types of cloud service consumers? SelectALL THAT APPLY

A. Software programs capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.

B. Services capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.

C. Humans that use workstations running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud services.

D. Mobile devices running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud services.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6

Which of the following types of cost metrics make it more difficult to justify the leasing of cloud- based IT resources as an alternative to purchasing on-premise IT resources?SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A. cost of capital

B. sunk costs

C. integration costs

D. locked-in costs

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7

Which of the following combinations of cloud delivery models are possible?Select the correct answer.

A. IaaS PaaS

B. IaaS SaaS

C. IaaS PaaS SaaS

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which of the following scenarios describes the Reduced Investment and Proportional Costs benefit of cloud computing? Selectthe correct answer.

A. A cloud consumer pays a usage fee for only the amount of the IT resources actually used. This gives the cloud consumer organization access to IT resources without having to purchase its own.

B. A cloud consumer pays the expenses associated with the cost of capital in order to fund the up- front costs for the cloud provider IT resources used. This gives the cloud consumer organization the option to budget required up-front costs before committing to IT resource usage.

C. A cloud consumer avoids payment of up-front costs and usage fees for cloud provider IT resources it uses by following the cost of capital model. This allows the cloud consumer organization to obtain access to IT resources with “no money down”. This gives the cloud consumer organization the ability to begin working with cloud-based IT resources with no immediate funds, but then subjects the organization to increased costs later when high-interest rates begin to apply after a pre-defined period.

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Cloud consumers that use cloud-based IT resources can generally lease them with a ___________________ model so that cloud consumers pay a usage fee for only the amount of the IT resources actually used, resulting in directly proportional costs. Select the correct answer.

A. up-front fee

B. pay-for-use

C. amortization

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which of the following cloud delivery models provides the least amount of administrative control for cloud consumers? Selectthe correct answer.

A. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)

C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

D. The listed cloud delivery models provide the same level of administrative control for cloud consumers.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which of the following characteristics of a software program enables an instance of the program to serve different consumers, with each of these consumers isolated from one another? Select the correct answer.

A. multi-user

B. multitenancy

C. multi-device broker

D. elasticity

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 6

Which command initiates the IDSM2 system configuration dialog?

A. sysconfig-sensor

B. setup

C. configure terminal

D. session

E. initialize

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

What is the maximum number of command and control interfaces on an IDS Sensor appliance?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

LAB

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 15

Under which tab on the IDM can you find the Signature Wizard?

A. Device

B. Configuration

C. Monitoring

D. Administration

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19

When choosing an encrypted protocol with IDS Event Viewer, how is the certificate information obtained?

A. generated on the IEV host

B. obtained from the Certificate Authority

C. obtained from the Cisco IDS Sensor

D. HTTPS does not require a certificate

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27

How many sensing interfaces does the IDS-4215 support?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 1

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28

Which IDS components require regular signature updates?

A. IDS MC only

B. IDS Sensor devices only

C. IDS MC and Monitoring Center for Security only

D. IDS Sensor devices and IDS MC only

E. IEV, IDS Sensor devices, IDS MC, and Monitoring Center for Security

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30

Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected through Fast Ethernet connections. The RSPAN VLAN is

99. Both the Catalyst 4000 and Catalyst 6500 are running Catalyst OS. Which command represents a valid configuration step to permit Sensor IDS6 to monitor traffic sent to Server S7?

A. 6500(config)# remote-span 99

B. 6500>(enable) set rspan source 3/5 99 tx create

C. 4000>(enable) set rspan source vlan 99 destination interface fastEthernet 3/24

D. 4000>(enable) set rspan destination 99 3/24

E. 4000(config)# monitor session 2 destination interface fastEthernet 3/24

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37

What is one task that can be performed while in the interface sensing configuration mode from the Sensor CLI?

A. configure the interface’s IP information

B. add a sensing interface to the group

C. disable the sensing interface

D. configure alarm setting

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41

Which of the following statements are true about a trigger packet captured by the Sensor? Choose two.

A. It can be viewed in the command line interface (CLI) as raw hexadecimal data.

B. It can be viewed in IDS Event Viewer (IEV) if Ethereal is installed on the same system as IEV.

C. It contains only Layer 5 data of a TCP stream.

D. It contains a limited number of bytes.

Correct Answer: AB

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