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QUESTION 2

You want to live messages in the log file. What command would you use via clish (Choose one):

A. Vi -e /var/log/messages

B. Tail -200 /var/db/messages

C. Tail – t /var/log/messages |more

D. Fw log -nft

E. Tail -f /var/log/messages

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5

To what location/directory does Voyager make changes (Choose one):

A. /config/db

B. /conf/

C. /var/conf

D. /var/admin

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

You can no longer gain access to your Nokia firewall via secure communications. What command will give

you access and reset http:

A. Voyager -e 0 80

B. Set voyager ssl-level 0

C. Apachd -0 httpd.conf

D. Set Httpd -r -s

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

What ICLID command will show the version of the OS:

A. Show running config

B. Copy run start

C. Show version

D. Fw Ver

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

At what value must the TTL for a VRRP packet be set to:

A. 250

B. 255

C. 10

D. 100

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

What are the correct duplex settings. Which gives the more complete answer.

A. Console – Half Duplex and Full Duplex for a Serial connection

B. Cat6 Always full duplex

C. Serial always full duplex

D. Full Duplex – Switch and Half Duplex – Hub

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

The correct switch for single user mode from Boot manager on an IP440 is:

A. -s

B. Boot-p

C. b-f

D. -singlemode

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18

What is the location of the hosts file on IPSO (Choose one):

A. /var

B. /var/config

C. /etc/hosts

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20

What command will allow you to view the current connections table (Choose two):

A. fw tab -t connections -s

B. fwconn -i

C. fwtable -i

D. cpconntab -t

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 21

Where does checkpoint store its state tables (Choose One):

A. Checkpoint stores this in /etc/syncron.conf

B. Checkpoint uses the file $FWDIR/conf/sync.conf as its state table

C. Within the hosts file /etc/hosts

Correct Answer: B

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The most useful A00-211 SASInstitute certification practice questions

QUESTION 1

After a SAS program is submitted,thefollowing is written to the SAS log:

What issue generated the error in the log?

A. The syntax of the drop statement does not use an equals sign.

B. There should have been commas between the variable names.

C. The list of variables should have been enclosed in parentheses.

D. A drop statement and a keep= data set option cannotboth be used at the same time.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which statement is true concerning the SAS automatic variable _ERROR_?

A. It cannot be used in an if/then condition.

B. It cannot be used in an assignment statement.

C. It can be put into a keep statement or keep= option.

D. It is automatically dropped.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

The following SAS program is submitted:

What is produced as output?

A. A file named test.csv that can only be opened in Excel.

B. A text file named test.csv that can be opened in Excel or in any text editor.

C. A text file named test.csv that can only be opened in a text editor.

D. A file named test.csv that can only be opened by SAS.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Given the raw data record in the file phone.txt:

Which SAS statement completes the program and results in a value of “James Stevens” for the variable FullName?

A. FullName=CATX(‘ ‘,EmpFName,EmpLName);

B. FullName=CAT(‘ ‘,EmpFName,EmpLName);

C. FullName=EmpFName!!EmpLName;

D. FullName=EmpFName EmpLName;

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

The following code was modified to generate the results further below:

The following results were generated to display only specific statistics and limit the decimals with the modification:

Which statement below was modified or added to generate the results above:

A. var Height / nobs min max mean maxdec=1;

B. proc means data=SASHELP.CLASS maxdec=1 ;

C. proc means data=SASHELP.CLASS min max mean maxdec=1;

D. output nobs min max mean maxdec=1;

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Given the contents of the raw data file ‘EMPLOYEE.TXT’

Which SAS informat correctly completes the program?

A. date9

B. mmddyy10

C. ddmmyy10

D. mondayyr10

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which is a valid LIBNAME statement?

A. libname “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

B. libname mysasdata “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

C. libname sasdata “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

D. libname work “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

The following SAS program is submitted:

The program fails execution due to syntax errors. What is the cause of the syntax error?

A. An array cannot be referenced on a keep= data set option.

B. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthSales*).

C. An array can only be referenced in a KEEP statement not within a keep= data set option.

D. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthSales).

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Given the SAS data set WORK.P2000:

Andthe SAS data set WORK.P2008:

The following output is desired:

Which SAS program correctly combines the data?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16

The following SAS program is submitted:

What is the value of the second variable in the data set WORK.AUTHORS?

A. Hemingway

B. Hemingwa

C. ‘ ‘ (a missing value)

D. The program contains errors. No variables are created.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 2

Cisco Unity Express adds which three features to the Cisco IP Communications Express solution? (Choose three.)

A. data encryption

B. auto attendant

C. voice mail

D. call processing

E. group messaging

F. call routing

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 7

One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?

A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP components are integrated.

B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.

C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.

D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Cisco CallManager Express supports FXO trunks, analog DID, T1/E1, BRI, PRI, and E1 R2 signaling. Which benefit of Cisco CallManager Express does this represent?

A. cost-effectiveness

B. robust PBX functionality

C. remote maintenance

D. robust PSTN interfaces

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

If a customer is specifically interested in reducing the cost of IT overhead, which benefit is most applicable?

A. improved employee processes

B. reduced network administration

C. reduced long-distance charges

D. increased productivity of sales representatives

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which tool provides a completely transparent, Microsoft Excel-based spreadsheet that focuses on areas of IP telephony savings for Cisco IP Communications Express solutions?

A. Cisco CNIC

B. computer telephony integration analyzer

C. Cisco ROI methodology

D. needs-based competitive differentiator

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

What are two areas of savings often associated with convergence in terms of lowered costs over traditional voice communication? (Choose two.)

A. toll bypass

B. data storage

C. XML applications

D. moves, adds, and changes

E. CTI

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14

A potential customer has just described its system, which includes equipment that connects its users, provides many advanced services, connects to the PSTN, and is owned by the phone company. Which of

the following systems does the customer most likely use?

A. PBX

B. Centrex

C. key system

D. packet-switched network

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15

Which answer would be most appropriate if a potential customer asked how to protect against viruses and attacks if Cisco IP Communications shared its data network?

A. Cisco recommends purchasing CSA for all of your Cisco CallManager servers. This proactive software uses leading-edge behavioral technology to detect and prevent attacks before they cause damage.

B. Cisco network security policies are an integrated part of Cisco IP Communications. A set of guidelines and software services can be implemented to secure against virus attacks, services attacks, hackers, and IP phone attacks.

C. Security is not a concern with Cisco IP Communications. Most viruses and attacks only affect the data network

D. Because security is only a concern if you do not purchase the Cisco Self-Defending Network, Cisco recommends adding the Cisco Self-Defending Network to your integrated solution.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users. Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. a full Cisco CallManager solution

B. a full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity

C. Cisco CallManager Express

D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17

You are meeting with the IT manager of a firm that is planning to use a Cisco 3845 Integrated Services Router with Cisco CallManager Express. The customer plans on deploying 100 Cisco IP phones to start. How many additional Cisco IP phones will be supported by this solution?

A. 20

B. 44

C. 100

D. 140

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

.Which two documents should be part of the Staging Plan Development? (Choose two.)

A. Bill Of Materials

B. Staging Project Plan

C. Site Requirements Specification

D. Low-Level Design Template

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2

.Which task is conducted during execution of a system acceptance test plan?

A. Present and discuss systems acceptance test results with the customer

B. Verify that all participants are ready

C. Verify that escalation path is in place to help manage and mitigate problems with test cases

D. Record and review results with key stakeholders and business owners

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

.Which task is conducted as part of Business Readiness Testing?

A. Identify, Select and assess network management tools, features and functionality

B. Obtain and review security procedures and policies

C. User predetermined use cases or design use cases based upon validated business and operational requirements

D. Review network implementation strategy

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

.What should technical requirements and design goals be combined to create?

A. Service Level Criteria

B. Low-Level Design

C. Systems Acceptance Test Plan

D. Detailed Design Validation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

.Which service component within the prepare phase includes a set of activities and tasks to help identify and develop a technology strategy that supports a customer request for a routing and switching solution to help improve business operations?

A. Technology Strategy Development

B. High-Level Design Development

C. Business Requirements Development

D. Business Case Development

E. Operations Strategy Development

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

.Which three activities within the plan phase are performed when managing a project on time and within budget, which includes communication, resource management and change control? (Choose three.)

A. Project Control and Monitoring

B. Develop customer requirements change control plan

C. Develop Technology infrastructure and operational requirements plan

D. Conduct Project Kickoff Workshops

E. Develop a Project Management Plan

F. Identify and install collaborative tools provide training for those tools

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7

.What are two typical activities that are conducted as part of Security Assessment? (Choose two.)

A. Create a performance baseline for Security Assessment

B. Assess network infrastructure software and configuration

C. Categorize security incidents

D. Perform intrusion audits

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8

.Which service component within the plan phase prescribes a set of activities and tasks to assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify their ability to support the proposed routing and switching solution for a customer?

A. Network Readiness Assessment

B. Operations Readiness Assessment

C. Site Readiness Assessment

D. Security Vulnerability Assessment

E. Development Project Management

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

.When developing the financial analysis for a routing and switching solution, Which three tasks are performed prior to producing a business case for the customer? (Choose three.)

A. Understand how the customer will justify the investment and ensure that any financial risks are addressed.

B. Finalize the technology infrastructure and operational requirements to help ensure the financial analysis is accurate

C. Perform ROI analysis, which typically cites cost categories, such as cost of the technology or solution, cost of deployment and cost of operations

D. Consider other financial factors associated with capital budgeting, such as how long the solution will be used before costs are recovered, the economic value of the technology investment and return expectations on the technology investment

E. Determine the cost-to-benefit ratios of both adopting and not adopting the proposed routing and switching solution

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 14

.Which three test elements need to be documented when producing a business readiness test plan? (Choose three.)

A. Feature Configuration Tests

B. EndPoint Migrations Tests

C. Business Critical Application Tests

D. Third-Party Operations and Network Management Application and Integration Tests

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 1

Tom works as a network administrator. The primary adaptive security appliance in an active/standby failover configuration failed, so the secondary adaptive security appliance was automatically activated. Tom then fixed the problem. Now he would like to restore the primary to active status. Which one of the following commands can reactivate the primary adaptive security appliance and restore it to active status while issued on the primary adaptive security appliance?

A. failover reset

B. failover primary active

C. failover active

D. failover exec standby

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

John works as a network administrator .

According to the exhibit, the only traffic that John would like to allow through the corporate Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance is inbound HTTP to the DMZ network and all traffic from the inside network to the outside network. John also has configured the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance, and access through it is now working as expected with one exception: contractors working on the DMZ servers have been surfing the Internet from the DMZ servers, which (unlike other Company XYZ hosts) are using public, routable IP addresses. Neither NAT statements nor access lists have been configured for the DMZ interface. What is the reason that the contractors are able to surf the Internet from the DMZ servers? ActualTests.com (Note: The 192.168.X.XIP addresses are used to represent routable public IP addresses even though the

192.168.1.0 network is not actually a public routable network.)

A. An access list on the outside interface permits this traffic.

B. NAT control is not enabled.

C. The DMZ servers are using the same global pool of addresses that is being used by the inside hosts.

D. HTTP inspection is not enabled.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

You work as a network engineer, you are asked to examine the current Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Adaptive Security Appliances using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM) utility. You need to answer the multiple-choice

QUESTION 14

You work as a network engineer, you are asked to examine the current Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Adaptive Security Appliances using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM) utility. You need to answer the multiple-choice

QUESTION 15

You work as a network engineer, you are asked to examine the current Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Adaptive Security Appliances using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM) utility. You need to answer the multiple-choice

QUESTION 16

You work as a network engineer, you are asked to examine the current Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Adaptive Security Appliances using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM) utility. You need to answer the multiple-choice

QUESTION 17

Which three tunneling protocols and methods are supported by the Cisco VPN Client? (Choose three.)

A. Psec over TCP

B. Psec overUDP

C. ESP

D. ah

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 24

What is the reason that you want to configure VLANs on a security appliance interface?

A. for use in conjunction with device-level failoverto increase the reliability of your security appliance

B. for use in transparent firewall mode, where only VLAN interfaces are used

C. to increase the number of interfaces available to the network without adding additional physical interfaces or security appliances

D. for use in multiple contextmode, where you can map only VLAN interfaces to contexts

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27

Which three potential groups are of users for WebVPN? (Choose three.)

A. employees accessing specific internal applications from desktops and laptops not managed by IT

B. administrators who need to manage servers and networking equipment

C. employees that only need occasional corporate access to a few applications

D. users of a customer service kiosk placed in a retail store

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 30

Which two statements are true about multiple context mode? (Choose two.)

A. Multiple contextmode does not support IPS, IPsec, and SSL VPNs, or dynamic routing protocols.

B. Multiple contextmode enables you to create multiple independent virtual firewalls with their own security policies and interfaces.

C. Multiple context mode enables you to add to the security appliance a hardware module that supports up to four independent virtual firewalls.

D. When you convert from single mode to multiplemode, the security appliance automatically adds an entry for the admin context to the system configuration with the name “admin.”

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. This customer manages a large enterprise campus and three small branch offices. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. integrated IP telephony services

B. robust PSTN interfaces

C. interoperability between Cisco CallManager and Cisco CallManager Express

D. remote maintenance

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Cisco Unity Express adds which three features to the Cisco IP Communications Express solution? (Choose three.)

A. data encryption

B. auto attendant

C. voice mail

D. call processing

E. group messaging

F. call routing

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 3

A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of the customer?

A. Cisco Unity Express

B. Cisco Unity

C. customized XML applications

D. Cisco CallManager

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

You require an easy-to-use, web-enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings. Which tool should you use?

A. Cisco ROI analysis

B. Cisco CNIC

C. business case from the industry of the prospect

D. customized hurdle rate analysis

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?

A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP components are integrated.

B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.

C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.

D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Cisco CallManager Express supports FXO trunks, analog DID, T1/E1, BRI, PRI, and E1 R2 signaling. Which benefit of Cisco CallManager Express does this represent?

A. cost-effectiveness

B. robust PBX functionality

C. remote maintenance

D. robust PSTN interfaces

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

If a customer is specifically interested in reducing the cost of IT overhead, which benefit is most applicable?

A. improved employee processes

B. reduced network administration

C. reduced long-distance charges

D. increased productivity of sales representatives

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users. Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. a full Cisco CallManager solution

B. a full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity

C. Cisco CallManager Express

D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17

You are meeting with the IT manager of a firm that is planning to use a Cisco 3845 Integrated Services Router with Cisco CallManager Express. The customer plans on deploying 100 Cisco IP phones to start. How many additional Cisco IP phones will be supported by this solution?

A. 20

B. 44

C. 100

D. 140

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21

What best describes the benefit of convergence?

A. reduced total cost of ownership

B. investment protection

C. retention of existing hardware

D. safe-guarded functionality of a single-vendor network

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Which router is an ideal platform for customers that want the widest variety of network interfaces and services, including Virtual Private Network (VPN), intrusion detection, and IP communications?

A. Cisco 800 Series Integrated Services Routers

B. Cisco 1800 Series Integrated Services Routers

C. Cisco 2800 Series Integrated Services Routers

D. Cisco 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which statement best describes the value proposition for migration to an integrated services router platform?

A. Integrated services routers connect legacy applications to provide a seamless migration path to IP telephony

B. Integrated services routers are the first and only routers to offer an integrated systems approach that maximizes operating efficiencies and adds intelligence to the network.

C. Integrated services routers interconnect networks, connect network devices, and route traffic over the network.

D. Integrated services routers extend telephony features and functions to IP phones, VoIP gateways, media-processing devices, and multimedia applications.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

Which statement best describes one of the market trends toward a converged solution?

A. By 2007, traditional vendors will have developed new TDM systems.

B. Vendors are beginning to increase their support of TDM.

C. Vendors are offering IP-enabled PBX solutions that require the use of legacy PBX hardware.

D. Customers face the decision to continue spending to extend the life of a traditional system or invest in IP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

After a series of strategic acquisitions, a midsize prospect wishes to acquire the ability to link together IP and legacy phones in a single meeting. The solution also must be scalable and accommodate conference participants regardless of location. The communications of the firm rely upon a combination of IP networks and the PSTN. Which two applications best meet these needs? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Personal Assistant

B. Cisco Emergency Responder

C. Cisco Conference Connection

D. Cisco MeetingPlace

E. Cisco IP Contact Center

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10

A customer requires a software-based call-processing agent that extends enterprise telephony features and capabilities to packet telephony network devices. Which application would meet the needs of the customer?

A. Cisco Unity Express

B. Cisco Unity Unified Messaging

C. Cisco IP Contact Center

D. Cisco IP telephony

E. Cisco CallManager

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12

Tracking employee productivity and simplifying employee training describe common concerns among individuals who fulfill which one of these roles?

A. telecommunications manager

B. IT manager

C. human resources manager

D. marketing manager

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

What are two advantages that a competitor might attribute to an IP-enabled PBX? (Choose two.)

A. open standards that support third-party devices and software

B. investment protection

C. end-to-end IP telephony solution

D. retention of existing hardware

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14

What are two advantages of a Cisco converged IP telephony solution? (Choose two.)

A. supports TDM as an emerging standard in telecommunications

B. provides a high level of security because voice and data networks are separate

C. incorporates open standards that support third-party devices and software

D. is highly scalable with support for up to 30,000 phones per cluster

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17

Read the customer objection and select the two best answers. (Choose two.) Operations manager: A full-blown IP telephony solution seems much more expensive than a simple upgrade to our current system. IP telephony could definitely contribute to the success of several of our business objectives, but I am not sure we can justify the cost.

A. Simply enabling the current system may not accomplish these business objectives.

B. Seamlessly integrating your current PBX infrastructure with a full IP solution is the best way to stay ahead of the competition.

C. The scalability of Cisco IP Communications solutions will enable you to stay a step ahead of the competition

D. Accommodating unplanned growth and customer-driven changes can best be addressed with a distributed PBX solution

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18

An IP telephony prospect currently uses two distinct networks to handle its voice and data needs. Which benefit would be most appropriate to highlight when recommending that the prospect switch to a Cisco IP converged network solution?

A. faster development of proprietary business processes

B. steady cost of sales for established product lines

C. more accurate generation of financial reports for parent and subsidiary entities

D. easier prediction of future costs for technology enhancements

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?

A. Description Field

B. Message ID

C. Sequence Number

D. Token Number

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?

A. FTP

B. HTTP

C. TCP

D. UDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?

A. Nodeview

B. Class Wizard

C. DSM Wizard

D. Object View

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?

A. Common Object Repository

B. Distributed Services Bus

C. Distributed State Machine

D. Finite State Machine

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?

A. Agent components

B. DSM components

C. Microsoft SQL Client

D. Microsoft SQL Server

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)

A. Agent Technology Layer

B. Application Management Layer

C. Manager Layer

D. Internet Control Layer

E. Network Management Layer

F. WorldView Layer

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 9

When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?

A. Banyan VINES

B. Named Pipe only

C. NWLink IPX/SPX

D. TCP/IP Sockets

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?

A. Agent Technologies Components

B. Enterprise Management Components

C. Unicenter Agents

D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)

A. CPU

B. CPUTNG

C. POSTCPU

D. PRECPU

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12

What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?

A. Standard

B. Default

C. MAIN

D. BASE

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Which four Call Forward user settings are available on the NBX Telephony system? (Choose four.)

A. Forward calls to voice mail

B. Forward the call to an e-mail inbox

C. Forward calls to an Auto Attendant

D. Forward calls to another phone number

E. Disconnect the call after a set number of rings

F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail

G. Forward calls to the LCD and/or the Names Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose

Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 2

How does the NBX administrator assign a new user to a Hunt Group?

A. Select Dial Plan / Table and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

B. Select Dial Plan / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

C. Select Operations/ Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

D. Select User Configuration / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which three are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose three.)

A. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.1 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0

B. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.190 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0

C. Supports 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems

D. To have user privileges, sign on with a username of “user” and use your voicemail password

E. To have system configuration privileges, sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000″

F. With administrator privileges, you can easily change a user’s password but there is no easy way to retrieve the administrator password if it is lost

Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 6

Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)

A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications

B. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)

C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications

D. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license

E. With an NBX Telephony system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/ from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example., VPN, T1, E1, Frame and Relay

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7

Which two are required to use standards based 802.1p voice prioritization for an NBX phone system? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN tagging must be turned on

B. Requires NBX 3XXX model phones

C. Network switches must support IEEE 802.1p

D. NBX phone must be attached to the network through a PC that supports VLAN tagging

E. SuperStack 3 NBX Network Telephony System and the NBX 100 Communication System do not support packet prioritization

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8

How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?

A. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication

B. NBX phones, using VLAN-tagged frames, automatically set the priority level to 6

C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs

D. NBX phone place audio traffic in a priority queue, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which three are features/benefits of using Silent Suppression on your NBX Telephony System? (Choose three.)

A. On average, provides a 42% reduction in voice bandwidth utilization

B. Can be enabled/disabled for the entire system or for individual phones

C. Compresses all voice traffic, reducing packet size and network congestion

D. Eliminates additional voice packets between phones when there is a conversation

E. Enabled devices send small packets with a silence indication when it detects silence in the conversation

F. Eliminates the need for phones to send “keep alive” packets every 5 seconds, as the phones create a connection-oriented network session

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11

Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communications System? (Choose three.)

A. Requires the Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown

B. Supports hot-swap power supply, Network Call Processor and disk drive

C. Provides 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity

D. Is a combination of two chassis – the Network Call Processor and the interface chassis

E. Has 6-useable card slots with the top slot designated for the Network Call Processor Card

F. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are installed on a LAN

Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 15

Which NBX NetSet Administrator screen provides basic NBX information, such as: software version,IP address, Network Protocol, etc?

A. System Settings

B. System Main Menu

C. System Configuration

D. System Reports / System Data

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)

A. Can send alert to voicemail

B. Can send alert to a pager or email

C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems

D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes

E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure

F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System

Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 1

You are formatting a single hard disk for a Linux install. What is the maximum number of primary partitions you can create?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

F. 5

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2

You are compiling some software from source. After running ./configure with the appropriate arguments and no errors, what is the next command to run? Correct Answer: make

QUESTION 4

In order to append the output of ls to a file called bazz, which of the following command lines would you use?

A. ls >bazz

B. ls >and bazz

C. ls and> bazz

D. ls >> bazz

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

You have created a really long letter and after you are done, you notice that you used the name “Bob” many times but your forgot to capitalize it in many instances. Which command would you replace “bob” with “Bob” in all instances and generate a new letter for printing?

A. sed ‘/bob/Bob’ letter > newletter

B. sed s/bob/Bob/ letter < newletter

C. sed ‘s/bob/Bob’ letter >newletter

D. sed ‘s/bob/Bob/g’ letter > newletter

E. sed s/bob, Bob/’ letter > newletter

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You are logged in as user tux1, but now you want to switch users to tux2 with tux2′s environment. How would you do this?

A. su tux2

B. su -e tux2

C. su – tux2

D. su -m tux2

E. su -f tux2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

You have read/write permission on an ordinary file foo. You have just run ln foo bar. What would happen if you ran rm foo?

A. foo and bar would both be removed.

B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.

C. foo would be removed. bar would still exist but would be unusable.

D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.

E. You would be asked whether bar should be removed.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

While using the vi editor, you wish to move ahead one page. You should press the control key and:

A. A

B. D

C. F

D. U

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

You enter the command date %M. What does the output show you?

A. the current year

B. the current month

C. the current hour

D. the current minute

E. the current second

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

Which command will print out the attributes of the file foobar?

A. ls –attrfoobar

B. lsattr foobar

C. printattr foobar

D. fileattr foobar

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

Which of the following commands will list the quota for the user foobar?

A. repquota foobar

B. quota foobar

C. lsquota foobar

D. printquota foobar

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

What is spyware?

A. Software that opens an undocumented port on your server and allows attackers to control your system

B. Software that determines and reports improper software licensing

C. Software that gathers information and relays it to outside parties

D. Software that reports security holes to hackers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

In XHTML, what is one of the functions of the tag?

A. To create a check box in a form

B. To create a scrolling select list in a form

C. To create a record in a database

D. To create a data cell in a table

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following Web site maintenance functions helps ensure that users continue to visit your site?

A. Clearing the cache

B. Fixing dead links

C. Changing page locations

D. Moving links

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which type of encryption uses a pair of keys, in which one key is used to encrypt information and the other key is used to decrypt that information?

A. Hash encryption

B. One-way encryption

C. Symmetric encryption

D. Asymmetric encryption

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which of the following accurately describes a difference between a Java servlet and a PHP script?

A. Servlets can be used only to communicate with databases, whereas PHP scripts can be used to provide additional features.

B. Servlets must be interpreted, whereas PHP scripts are only compiled.

C. PHP scripts can be used only to communicate with databases, whereas servlets can be used to provide additional features.

D. Servlets must be compiled, whereas PHP scripts are only interpreted.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) organizes transmitted information into datagrams or packets?

A. Session layer

B. Network layer

C. Data link layer

D. Application layer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

What is an intranet?

A. A searchable internal repository that stores an organization’s proprietary documents “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www. 4 CIW 1D0-510: Practice Exam

B. A TCP/IP-based network accessible only by an organization’s members and employees

C. A TCP/IP-based network accessible only by an organization’s internal employees and select external clients

D. A worldwide network available to anyone who has a TCP/IP connection on a computer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

The ICANN assigns your company the network address 206.57.26.0. What is the default subnet mask for this network?

A. 255.255.0.0

B. 255.255.255.255

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.0.0.0

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

You are hosting a Web server in your office. Your ISP will provide connectivity. What do you need from your ISP in order to publish your site?

A. Directory locations

B. A user name and password “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www. 5 CIW 1D0-510: Practice Exam

C. A DNS name or IP address

D. Permissions to use CGI

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15

You want to find information about Java. You visit a popular search engine and manually search through a directory tree of topics until you find a directory titled “Computers” and a subdirectory titled “Programming Languages.” You select the topic “Java” and look through a list of indexed pages on that topic, then choose one page with which to begin your research. Which type of search index did you use?

A. Boolean index

B. Keyword index

C. Static index

D. Full-text index

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. You want to provide identity management between a Human Resources application and Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). You need to ensure that the synchronization service instance can be returned if the primary server fails. What should you implement?

A. A cluster server

B. A warm-standby server

C. A software load-balance server

D. A hardware load-balance appliance

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network to provide an identity management solution between an enterprise resource planning (ERP) application and Active Directory. The solution will contain the following FIM services: FIM Service FIM Service database FIM Synchronization Service FIM Synchronization Service database. You need to ensure that all FIM services support fault tolerance. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Deploy FIM Service in a network load-balanced configuration.

B. Deploy a FIM Service instance on an active server and a second FIM service instance on a standby server.

C. Deploy the FIM Synchronization Service database and FIM Service database in a failover cluster configuration.

D. Deploy the FIM Synchronization Service database and FIM Service database in a network load-balanced configuration.

E. Deploy a FIM Synchronization Service instance on an active physical server and a second FIM Synchronization Service instance on a standby physical server.

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3

.

You deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) in your company network to synchronize user accounts between Active Directory and an HR application. End users use the FIM Self-Service Portal to reset passwords and manage groups. You use a two-tiered architecture according to the following table.

Server Roles ?FIM Synchronization database (dedicated disk) FIM Service database (dedicated disk) FIM Synchronization Service FIM One back-end server Service (dedicated to FIM Synchronization Service access) FIM Portal Two load-balanced ?FIM Service FIM Self-Service Portal front-end servers Currently, the number of users and groups has doubled. You experience delays in performance of the Active Directory Management Agent (AD MA). You need to improve the performance of the MA . What should you do?

A. Configure the AD MA to run as a different service account.

B. Add an additional front-end server to the two load-balanced front-end servers.

C. Split the FIM Synchronization Service, and then install it on a new separate physical server.

D. Split the FIM Portal from the back end, and then install it on a new separate physical server.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. You need to select a FIM topology that meets the following requirements: Removes single points of failure. Separates end-user operations from administrative data synchronization. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Create two service partitions.

B. Create four service partitions.

C. Create two instances of the FIM Service by using two FIM Service Names.

D. Create four instances of the FIM Service by using two FIM Service Names.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5

.

You are deploying Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) to your company network. End users will use the password self-service, user profile management, and group management from the FIM Portal. You use a separate account to install all FIM software on a server allocated for FIM installation. You need to complete the portal installation of FIM services. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Ensure that delegation is disabled for the FIM service account.

B. Ensure that delegation is disabled for the SharePointService account.

C. Ensure that the FIM installation account has SQL sysadmin rights.

D. Ensure that the FIM Installation account has SharePoint administrator permissions.

E. Configure the SharePoint Application Pool account to use the Configurable service account.

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6

.

You administer a Forefront Identity Management (FIM) 2010 server in your company network. You need to be able to synchronize user accounts between Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and third-party directory services by using the FIM Portal. What should you do?

A. Add the FIM Synchronization Service (FIMSynchronizationService) account to the FIMSyncAdmins group.

B. Add the FIM Service (FIMService) account to the FIMSyncAdmins group.

C. Change the FIM Service (FIMService) account configuration to logon as local system account.

D. Change the FIM Synchronization Service (FIMSynchronizationService) account configuration to logon as local system account.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

.

You deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. You need to activate Kerberos authentication for the FIM Portal. What should you do?

A. Modify the ResourceManagementClient section of the web.config file.

B. From the Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager console, change Windows Authentication to Enable Kernel-mode authentication.

C. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, on the Edit Authentication page, clear Integrated Windows Authentication.

D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, on the Edit Authentication page, change Authentication Type to Web Single sign on.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. Which server platform should you install before the FIM Portal?

A. Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0

B. Microsoft SharePoint Foundation 2010

C. Microsoft SharePoint Server 2010

D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

.

Your company network contains Microsoft Identity Lifecycle Manager (ILM) 2007 and Microsoft SQL Server 2008. ILM is configured to use 32-bit rules extensions. You upgrade ILM 2007 to Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010. You need to recompile the rules extensions. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Configure the references to point to a custom .dll file.

B. Configure the references to point to the FIM 2010 libraries.

C. Copy the extensions to the server that runs FIM 2010.

D. Copy the extensions to a 64-bit version of SQL Server 2008.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

.

Drag and Drop

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QUESTION 2

Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the Shadow Password Suite?

A. vi /etc/shadow

B. sudo -c “vi /etc/shadow”

C. su -c “vi /etc/shadow”

D. visu vi /etc/passwd

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment variables that apply to all users?

A. /etc/skel

B. rc.sysinit

C. /etc/profile

D. /etc/bashrc

E. rc.local

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks through various network services?

A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.

B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.

C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.

D. Uninstall unneeded network services.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?

A. It is reserved.

B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.

C. It is designated for multicast transmission.

D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?

A. The linuxconf Gated Daemon screen

B. The linuxconf Routed Daemon screen

C. echo “0″ > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing

D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?

A. dhcpcd

B. pump

C. dhcpd

D. dhclient

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

How should you engage users in helping to secure your computer’s passwords?

A. Educate them about the importance of security, the means of choosing good passwords, and the ways crackers can obtain passwords.

B. Instruct your users to e-mail copies of their passwords to themselves on other systems so that they’re readily available in case of an emergency.

C. Enforce password change rules but don’t tell users how crackers obtain passwords since you could be educating a future cracker.

D. Give some of your users copies of the encrypted database file as backup in case a cracker breaks in and corrupts the original.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)

A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.

B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.

C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network link runs the risk of password interception.

D. Users may be able to abuse a program’s features, thus doing more damage than would otherwise be possible.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10

You are told by a co-worker that information pertaining to the syslog command can be found in man page

3. How would you view this information?

A. man syslog 3

B. man 3 syslog

C. man syslog -3

D. man -3 syslog

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

What would the following command do? cat MyFile | sort | tee | lpr

A. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order and display the contents of MyFile in sorted order.

B. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order and display the contents of MyFile.

C. It would not work because it contains too many pipes.

D. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 2

OSPF is defined on a Frame Relay interface providing point-to-multipoint connections. The remote neighbors can reach this central site, but are complaining of routing failures between each of the remote sites. The central router has all the routes for each remote site. Based on this information, what can be diagnosed as the biggest potential problem?

A. An over-subscribed Frame Relay switch will cause some packet loss.

B. There are problems in the use of OSPF Authentication.

C. There is an incorrect selection of the Designated Router.

D. There is an incorrect DLCI assigned on a point-to-point sub-interface.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

Three of the following are common symptoms of a bridge tap (“half tap”) on a DSL line. Which three are symptoms that result from placing a bride tap on a DSL line?

A. The line may not train.

B. The DSL service will interfere with telephone (POTS) service on the same line.

C. DSL line rates will be lower than expected (lower than provisioned).

D. The line may have degraded DSL service, but POTS service may appear normal.

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 25

In Frame Relay, what devices resend packets that do not transmit correctly?

A. Digital transmission media cabled to monitor ports, as opposed to straight DCE signaling

B. Network end stations

C. Network switches running SNMP management software

D. Special bridging devices within the backbone cloud

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27

In Frame Relay, the BECN bit is set by:

A. The Frame Relay network, to inform the DTE receiving the frame that congestion was experienced in the path from source to destination

B. The Frame Relay network, in frames traveling in the opposite direction from those frames that encountered congestion

C. The receiving DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back

D. The sending DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back

E. Any device that uses an extended DLCI address

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36

A new Cisco router has no configuration defined. Which methods can be used to configure the router for the first time? (multiple answer)

A. Using SNMP via a network management station

B. Connecting a terminal to the console port and running the Setup dialogue

C. Connecting a terminal to the console port and directly typing in configuration commands D. Using BOOTP/SLARP/RARP to download a configuration file that has been created ahead of time

E. Connecting a terminal to the console port, defining a minimal configuration, connecting the router to the network, and using TFTP to download a configuration file that has been created ahead of time

Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 43

What VCI value is reserved for PNNI ATM routing?

A. 5

B. 16

C. 18

D. 22

E. 31

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 54

What is the difference between AAL5 SNAP and AAL5 MUX virtual circuits?

A. AAL5 SNAP is used to carry IP packets embedded in PPP encapsulation and AAL5 MUX is used to carry raw IP data.

B. SNAP allows multiplexing of multiple protocols over a single VC, while AAL5 MUX can carry only one protocol per VC.

C. SNAP VCs define real time data and MUX VC defines mixed (real time and non real time) data.

D. SNAP VCs are used inside public carrier network while MUX VCs are used on the edge.

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 67

An architecture that utilizes PPPoA deals with IP address allocation by what type of negotiation?

A. DHCP

B. LDAP

C. IPCP

D. RADIUS

E. NIS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 70

A Network Administrator is unable to configure a PVC with the value of 8/49. He looks at the running config and notices the following entry for the interface he is working with. What is the likely cause of the problem? interface ATM0/0/0no ip addressatm vc-per-vp 2048no atm ilmi-keepalive

A. ILMI has timed out without keepalives.

B. The config is fine; the NSP must be the source of the problem.

C. An IP address is required to turn up PVCs.

D. The interface is shutdown.

E. Too many bits have been assigned to the VCs reducing the possible values of the VP.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 76

BGP can implement a policy of ‘Route Dampening’ to control route instability. What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?

A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.

B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.

C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.

D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable ‘suppress limit’.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

Which three benefits are of deploying Cisco Security MARS appliances by use of the global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)

A. A global controller can provide a summary of all local controllers information (network topologies, incidents, queries, and reports results).

B. A global controller can provide a central point for creating rules and queries, which are applied simultaneously to multiple local controllers.

C. A global controller can correlate events from multiple local controllers to perform global sessionizations.

D. Users can seamlessly navigate to any local controller from the global controller GUI.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6

What is the reporting IP address of the device while adding a device to the Cisco Security MARS appliance?

A. The source IP address that sends syslog information to the Cisco Security MARS appliance

B. The pre-NAT IP address of the device

C. The IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via SNMP

D. The IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via Telnet or SSH

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Here is a

QUESTION 10

Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely or by just logging them to the database?

A. Inactivating the rules

B. Creating system inspection rules using the drop operation

C. Deleting the false-positive events from the events management page

D. Creating drop rules

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Which two alert actions can notify a user that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired, and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)

A. syslog

B. Short Message Service

C. OPSEC-LEA (clear and encrypted)

D. XML notification

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14

Which of the following alert actions can be transmitted to a use as notification that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)

A. Syslog

B. OPSEC-LEA (Clear and encrypted)

C. Short Message Service

D. XML notification

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15

Which three items are true with regard to the Cisco Security MARS syslog forwarding feature for relaying the received syslog data to a syslog server? (Choose three.)

A. The configured collector is a designated host that receives a syslog message but the collector does not relay it to another host.

B. Cisco Security MARS can forward alert data to multiple collector IP addresses.

C. Syslog forwarding is disabled until you specify the collector and at least one source host.

D. The pnparser service should be running for the syslog forwarding feature to work. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-545

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20

Global Controller is a master unit that allows for global management of one or more Local Controllers. Is correct?

A. Correct

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26

The Cisco Security MARS appliance performs NAT and PAT resolution at which level of operation?

A. Advanced (Level 3)

B. Local (Level 0)

C. Intermediate (Level 2)

D. Global (Level 4)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29

Which two actions should be taken to represent a Check Point device in the Cisco Security MARS? (Select two)

A. Define Parent Enforcement Module.

B. Define Primary Management Station.

C. Define Check Point OPSEC.

D. Define Child Enforcement Module(s).

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users. Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. A full Cisco CallManager solution

B. A full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity

C. Cisco CallManager Express

D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?

A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP components are integrated.

B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.

C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.

D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Organizations that embrace Cisco IP Communications solutions are able to interoperate with existing TDM systems and applications, as well as support which two traditional telephony networking standards? (Choose two.)

A. QSIG

B. BGP

C. SIP

D. TDM

E. DPNSS

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5

You require an easy-to-use, web-enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a

converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.

Which tool should you use?

A. Cisco ROI analysis

B. Cisco CNIC

C. business case from the industry of the prospect

D. customized hurdle rate analysis

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco CallManager Express remotely. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?

A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution

B. Cisco Network Analysis Module

C. command-line interface

D. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTIONs would be most appropriate to ask an IT manager? (Choose two.)

A. In how many locations do you have Cisco routers deployed?

B. Would installing Cisco IP Communications Express with other business systems reduce the complexity of your IP infrastructure?

C. How many platforms do you intend to use for call processing and voice mail?

D. Do you anticipate growth in the number of employees over the next few years?

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8

A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of the customer?

A. Cisco Unity Express

B. Cisco Unity

C. customized XML applications

D. Cisco CallManager

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

You are the senior desktop administrator for Pass4sure.com. You are required to choose a phone that supports many speed dials and is reachable via multiple lines. Which Cisco Unified IP phone solution would be the best choice?

A. Cisco Unified IP Phone 7906G

B. Cisco Unified IP Phone 7931G

C. Cisco Unified IP Phone 7945G

D. Cisco Unified IP Phone 7971G

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

An account manager is meeting with a service provider customer planning to upgrade each of its managed routers with a Cisco Unity Express Network Module from the Cisco Unity Express Advanced Integration Module. Because this customer manages hundreds of routers at dispersed locations, the customer is concerned about labor costs in upgrading their routers. What should be your response to this concern?

A. Cisco can send a technician to perform the upgrade at each site.

B. Cisco will ship the modules to the subscriber locations, and the subscriber can easily install them.

C. The subscriber should contact the closest Cisco sales office and bring in each router for installation.

D. Cisco will ship the modules to the service provider, and the service provider must install each module at each subscriber location.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

You work as the network administrator at Pass4sure.com. And the company is thinking about whether to purchase licenses for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. The typical branch site has 50 analog devices (phones, fax machines, door openers, and so on) and keeps 100 IP phones for salespeople. Will Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express support the number of analog phones and IP phones described, and what is the maximum possible number of analog phones and IP phones?

A. No. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express only supports up to 88 analog devices and 24 IP phones.

B. No. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express does not support analog devices, but does support 24 IP phones.

C. Yes. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express supports up to 88 analog devices and 240 IP phones.

D. Yes. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express supports up to 50 analog devices and 240 IP phones.

Correct Answer: C

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The most accurate 642-551 Cisco certification test guide

QUESTION 1

What is a reconnaissance attack?

A. when an intruder attacks networks or systems to retrieve data, gain access, or escalate access privileges.

B. when an intruder attempts to discover and map systems, services, and vulnerabilities

C. when malicious software is inserted onto a host in order to damage a system, corrupt a system, replicate itself, or deny service or access to networks, systems, or services

D. when an intruder attacks your network in a way that damages or corrupts your computer system, or denies you and other access to your networks, systems, or services

E. when an intruder attempts to learn user IDs and passwords that can later be used in identity theft

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which communication protocol is used by the administrator workstation to communicate with the CSA MC?

A. SSH

B. Telnet

C. HTTPS

D. SSL

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

At which layer of the OSI model does a proxy server work?

A. data link

B. physical

C. application

D. network

E. transport

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

What is a description of a promiscuous PVLAN port?

A. It has a complete Layer 2 separation from the other ports within the same PVLAN.

B. It can only communicate with other promiscuous ports.

C. It can communicate with all interfaces within a PVLAN.

D. It cannot communicate with other ports.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

In which version did NTP begin to support cryptographic authentication?

A. version 5

B. version 4

C. version 3

D. version 2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

What is a DoS attack?

A. when an intruder attacks networks or systems to retrieve data, gain access, or escalate access privileges

B. when an intruder attempts to discover and map systems, services, and vulnerabilities

C. when malicious software is inserted onto a host in order to damage a system, corrupt a system, replicate itself, or deny services or access to networks, systems, or services

D. When an intruder attacks your network in a way that damages or corrupts your computer system, or denies you and others access to your networks, systems, or services

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Cisco routers, such as the ISRs, are best suited for deploying which type of IPSec VPN?

A. remote-access VPN

B. overlay VPN

C. WAN-to-WAN VPN

D. site-to-site VPN

E. SSL VPN

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23

Which component within the Cisco Network Admission Control architecture acts as the policy server for evaluating the endpoint security information that is relayed from network devices, and for determining the appropriate access policy to apply?

A. CiscoWorks

B. CiscoWorks VMS

C. Cisco Secure ACS

D. Cisco Trust Agent

E. Cisco Security Agent

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24

Which authentication method is based on the 802.1x authentication framework, and mitigates several of the weaknesses by using dynamic WEP and sophisticated key management on a peer-packet basis?

A. PAP

B. CHAP

C. LEAP

D. ARAP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26

Which command is used to encrypt passwords in the router configuration file?

A. service password-encryption

B. password-encryption

C. enable password encryption

D. encrypt password

Correct Answer: A

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The most useful SQ0-101 See-Beyond certification practice questions

QUESTION 1

The e*Gate product is primarily used for Application Integration via:

A. Moving messages between internal and external message queues

B. Transformation, application and data integration, and event propagation to/from internal/external systems

C. Programming in Monk and Java programming languages

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which command line utility will start the Control Broker?

A. stcregutil.exe

B. stcinstd.exe

C. stccb.exe

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

An e*Gate Schema:

A. Is comprised of at least one e*Way, Collaboration, Collaboration Rule, Multi-Mode e*Way, IQ and Event Type

B. Is all configuration information organized into a logical project

C. Is stored in a file with the extension .rdb on each respective Participating Host

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Where are the Schema related files maintained?

A. eGate/Server/registry/.rdb

B. eGate/Server/registry/repository/Schemas.rdb

C. eGate/Server/registry/repository/ directory

D. eGate/client/monk scripts/common directory

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5

The default Schema:

A. Contains templates of configuration files and Monk scripts

B. Contains templates of ETD files

C. Contains user created and modified files for all users

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

The file system threshold is available only when a function of the:

A. Registry Service is customized

B. Installer Service is running

C. Control Broker Service is configured to control the hard drive

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

How do you import an external file and register it in an e*Gate Schema?

A. Use the stcinstd.exe to import the file

B. Use the Import Module option

C. Use the Commit to Sandbox option

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

When upgrading from previous versions of e*Gate, a user may be prompted (by the installation wizard) to back up RDB files, SeeBeyond recommends backing up these files because:

A. They contain information about the e*Gate security system

B. They contain configuration information for Participating Hosts and Schemas installed on the system

C. They contain all configuration information for a single Schema

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Files that have advisory locks placed upon them by the Team Registry feature may be “unlocked” when:

A. The user who checked out the file promotes the file

B. The user who checked out the file, removes the file from the Sandbox without promoting it

C. The user exits the e*Gate Editor without ever saving the file

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10

When deleting a Schema, which e*Gate service must be stopped?

A. The Control Broker service for the Schema to be deleted

B. The e*Gate Registry Service

C. The Lightweight Installer Service

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1

You are the desktop administrator for Contoso, Ltd. The company’s network contains 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers, which are members of a single Active Directory domain. The computers’ hard disks are formatted as NTFS.

The company’s software developers release a new custom application. The application uses a .dll file named AppLib.dll, which is installed in a folder named \Program Files\Contoso\OpsApp.

The company’s help desk technicians report that several users experience problems when they use the application because the AppLib.dll file was deleted on their client computers. The company’s software developers recommend that you modify the file permissions on AppLib.dll so that users have only Read permission on the file.

You need to ensure that all users have only Read permission on the AppLib.dll file on all 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers. What should you do?

A. Write a logon script that moves the AppLib.dll file into the %systemroot%\System32 folder. Ensure that Windows File Protection is enabled on all 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers. Apply the logon script to all domain user accounts.

B. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to create a new security template that modifies the file permissions on AppLib.dlI. Use Active Directory Group Policy to import and apply the template to all 1,000 Windows XP Professional computers.

C. Repackage the custom application in a Windows Installer package. Ask a domain administrator to create a Group Policy object (GPO) that advertises the package to all domain user accounts.

D. Write a Microsoft Visual Basic Scripting Edition (VBScript) file named Modify.vbs that modifies the file permissions on AppLib.dlI. E-mail Modify.vbs to all company employees and instruct them to double-click the file in order to run it

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network contains 500 Windows XP

Professional computers. The information security department releases a new security template named

NewSec.inf.

You import NewSec.inf into a security database named NewSec.sdb. You analyze the result, and you

review the changes that the template makes.

You examine the security policies that are defined in NewSec.inf. You discover that the settings in

NewSec.inf have not been implemented on your computer.

You need to ensure that the settings in NewSec.inf overwrite the settings in your computer’s local security

policy. What are two possible ways to achieve this goaI? (Each correct answer presents a complete

solution. Choose two.)

A. Run the Secedit /configure /db C:\NewSec.sdb command.

B. Run the Secedit /refreshpolicy machine_policy command.

C. Copy NewSec.inf to the C:\Windows\Inf folder.

D. Copy NewSec.sdb to the C:\Windows\System32\Microsoft\Protect folder.

E. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to open NewSec.sdb and then to perform a Configure operation.

F. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to export NewSec.sdb to the Defltwk.inf security template.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

You are the administrator of 10 Windows XP Professional computers for your company. The computers

are members of a Windows 2000 domain.

Because the computers are used in a public area in the cafeteria, you audit all security events on the

computers.

A user named Marc reports that he was using one of the Windows XP Professional computers when the

computer suddenly shut down with a STOP error. When the computer restarted, Marc attempted to log on

by using the same user name and password that he used before. Marc received the following error

message: “Your account is configured to prevent you from using this computer. PIease try another

computer.” Marc states that he did not do anything to cause the STOP error to occur.

You want to ensure that Marc can use this computer. What should you do?

A. On the computer, save and clear the security log, set the CrashOnAuditFail setting to 1, and restart the computer.

B. On the computer, modify the local audit policy so that system events are not audited, set the CrashOnCtrIScroll setting to 1, and restart the computer.

C. In the domain, modify Marc’s Logon Workstations list to include the name of the computer.

D. In the domain, modify Marc’s account properties to unlock the account.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

You are a help desk technician for your company. Your company’s network includes an Active Directory domain and Windows XP Professional computers that are configured as members of the domain.

Company policy prohibits users from accessing their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. However, users report that they can log on to their computers, even though a network administrator has told them that a domain controller is not available.

As a test, you log off of your computer and disconnect it from the network. You discover that you can log on by using your domain user account.

You need to ensure that users cannot access their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. How should you configure the local computer policy on these computers?

A. Enable the Require domain controller to unlock policy.

B. Set the Number of previous logons to cache policy to 0.

C. Remove all user and group accounts from the Log on locally user right.

D. Remove all user and group accounts from the Access this computer from the network user right.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

You are a help desk technician for your company. AII users have Windows XP Professional computers.

Ten users run a custom application named Finance on their computers. Finance stores user passwords in

a file named Passwords.ini.

By default, the Passwords.ini file is stored in a folder named C:\Winnt\App1. The location and name of the

file can be changed by an administrator.

Each Passwords.ini file is unique. Each computer contains a single logical drive, which is drive C and is

formatted as NTFS.

In order to comply with a new company security policy, you need to ensure that the Passwords.ini files are

encrypted. What should you do?

A. In the properties of the C:\Winnt\App1 folder, use Windows Explorer to select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box.

B. Ask a network administrator to share a new encrypted folder named PassFiles on a network server and to permit users to read the files contained within the folder. Copy the Passwords.ini file from each computer into the PassFiles folder. On each computer, configure Finance to use the Passwords.ini file

in the PassFiles folder.

C. Create a folder named C:\Files. Copy the Passwords.ini file to the C:\Files folder. In the properties of the C:\Files folder, select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box. Configure Finance to use the C:\Files\Passwords.ini file.

D. Create a folder named C:\Files. Move the Passwords.ini file to the C:\Files folder. Instruct the user of each computer to open the properties of the C:\Files folder and select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box. Configure Finance to use the C:\Files\Passwords.ini file.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional portable computer. When you are traveling, you often dial in to the internet to connect to your company network.

Your company has a policy that prohibits Web sites that do not have a Platform for Privacy Preferences (P3P) privacy policy from saving cookies on employees’ computers. Web sites that do have a P3P policy are allowed to save cookies. You configure internet Explorer to comply with company policy.

After you make this configuration change, you receive a Privacy dialog box when you visit Web sites that do not comply with company policy. The Privacy dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X)button.)

However, you notice that these Web sites still welcome you based on personalized information. The Restricted Web sites list in the privacy report lists blocked cookies for these Web sites.

You want to ensure that Web sites that do not comply with your company policy cannot track your access to their Web sites. What should you do?

A. Change the Privacy setting to High.

B. Change the Advanced Privacy setting to block cookies for first-party and third-party cookies.

C. Change the Temporary internet Files setting to check for newer versions of stored pages every time you start internet Explorer.

D. Delete existing cookies that you received from the noncompliant Web sites.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

You are the administrator of the Windows XP Professional portable computers that are used by your company’s sales representatives. The computers are members of a Windows 2000 domain. A Windows 2000 Server computer named Server1 contains the sales data used by the sales representatives in a shared folder named Data.

When sales representatives travel, they use the Offline Files feature to access the files in the \\Server1 \Data shared folder. You want to ensure that the offline files on the portable computers are not accessible by unauthorized persons, in the event that a portable computer is lost.

What should you do?

A. Instruct the sales representatives to configure the permissions on the offline files on their portable computers to allow access for only their user accounts.

B. On Server1, configure the permissions on all files in the Data shared folder to allow access for only the sales representatives.

C. Use a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Encrypt the Offline Files cache option for the portable computers.

D. On the portable computers, enable encryption of the %systemroot%\CSC folder. Apply this setting to the folder and files in the CSC folder.

E. On Server1, encrypt all files in the Data shared folder. Add all sales representatives to the encryption details.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII client computers currently run Windows 2000 Professional. The client computers have a typical disk configuration, as shown in the following table.

You are in the process of deploying new Windows XP Professional computers to users in the graphics department. The new computers currently have one hard disk. Each hard disk is configured as a dynamic disk, and it contains the system and boot volume. To maintain user data, you are moving the physical hard disks from the users’ original computers to the new computers.

Laura is a user in the graphics department. You move disk 1 from Laura’s original computer to her new computer. You do not move disk 0 to the new computer. When you run the Disk Management console on the new computer, the disk that you moved from Laura’s original computer appears with the status of Foreign. When you attempt to run the Import Foreign Disks utility, the Foreign Disk Volumes dialog box is displayed, as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

When you click the OK button, the disk is imported. However, the status of the disk changes to Failed, and you cannot access data that is stored on the disk.

You need to ensure that Laura can access the data that is stored on the hard disk that you moved to the new computer. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Run the Import Foreign Disks utility in the Disk Management console.

B. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Delete and re-create the spanned volume.

C. Convert the moved hard disk to a dynamic disk. Delete the spanned volume and create a simple volume.

D. Run the Ftonline e: command on the new computer. Back up the data that is on drive E. Delete and re-create the spanned volume, and restore the data.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network consists of a single Active Directory domain. AII client computers run Windows XP ProfessionaI.

Employees in the sales department use portable computers. AII portable computers use 802.11b wireless LAN PC adapters and a wireless access point to connect to the network. The wireless access point is connected to the company network by means of a wireless bridge. The wireless LAN uses 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

A user in the sales department returns from a business trip and reports that she cannot connect to the company network. You run the configuration utility for the wireless LAN adapter. The status of the wireless network connection is shown as Not Linked. When you attempt to scan for the network, a connection cannot be made. The configuration for the LAN adapter and the wireless network connection is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

You need to ensure that the user can connect to the network. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Clear the This is a computer-to-computer (ad hoc) network check box.

B. Select the Network Authentication (Shared mode) check box.

C. Clear the The key is provided for me automatically check box. Type the WEP network key information for the wireless LAN.

D. Clear the The key is provided for me automatically check box. Configure the Key index option to 1.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. AII client computers run Windows XP Professional.

Tom is a user in the development department. Tom uses his computer to develop new applications. The computer is currently running Windows 2000 Server, which is installed in the C:\Winnt folder. The computer’s disk configuration is shown in the following table.

Tom installs Windows XP Professional in the C:\Windows folder on the computer. The installation completes successfully.

However, when Tom restarts the computer, he receives the following error message:

“STOP: INACCESSIBLE_BOOT_DEVICE.” Windows XP Professional will not start. The existing Windows

2000 Server installation starts successfully.

You need to ensure that Tom can start both operating systems. What should you do?

A. From the DiskPart command line, run the Active c: command, and then run the Rescan command.

B. Run the Dmdiag c: command.

C. Reinstall Windows XP Professional and specify drive D as the installation partition.

D. Restart the computer by using the Recovery console, and run the Fixboot command.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)

A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module

B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.

C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.

D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module

E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric

F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails

G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 3

What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?

A. 4 groups

B. 13 groups

C. 24 groups

D. 64 groups

E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)

A. Has eight output queues per port

B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization

C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization

D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization

E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch

F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5

Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)

A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.

B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive

C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules

D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group

E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

Exhibit:

Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface

Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only

B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only

D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only

F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7

Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)

A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface

B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain

C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain

D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8

What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?

A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.

B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions

C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network

D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)

A. Multilayer traffic prioritization

B. Multiple priority queues per port

C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)

D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.

E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login

F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11

Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)

A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects

B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial

C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800

D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13

Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)

A. Ensure continuous network availability

B. Supports enhanced network performance

C. Can be created using any IP-based switch

D. Create a path for future-proofing the network

E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD

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