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QUESTION 1

When PowerHA SystemMirror 7.1 is installed on AIX 7.1, what RSCT component does Cluster Aware AIX (CAA) replace?

A. Group Services

B. Resource Manager

C. Topology Services

D. Resource Monitoring and Control (RMC)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

When implementing PowerHA in a cross site LVM configuration, which logical volume option is required?

A. Serialize IO=yes

B. Mirror Write Consistency=on

C. Scheduling Policy=sequential

D. Allocation Policy=superstrict

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

An administrator is using PowerHA 7 to define a new cluster using SMIT option “Setup a Cluster, Nodes and Networks” and encountered the following error message:

What is the root cause of the problem?

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A. The nodes were not defined in the DNS

B. The /etc/cluster/rhosts are not populated correctly

C. The CAA repository disk is not accessible on all nodes

D. The CAA cluster was not defined before defining the PowerHA Cluster

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

A 2-node cluster has three multi-node disk heartbeat (MNDHB) networks and data volume groups on separate disks. Application resource groups are online on Node1. What happens if Node1 loses access to two of the three MNDHB disks?

A. Node1 halts

B. Application resource groups move to Node2

C. Application resource groups remain on Node1

D. Application resource groups on Node1 go offline

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Given the information from hacmp.out below, why is the cluster in config_too_long status? “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – 100% Pass Guarantee 4 IBM 000-332 Exam

A. The script /APP1/serv/scripts/shut_down does not exist.

B. The APP1 stop_server script exited with a non zero return code.

C. The application did not shut down correctly, which caused the rg_move operation to exceed the time limit to complete.

D. The rg_move event is sleeping for anything between 360 seconds and 3600 hours until the stop_server script is complete.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the HMC for a standby node in that cluster:

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How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application runs with the minimum hardware resources?

A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6

B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5

C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5

D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

The service IPs VLAN is the only routable network in a 2-node HA cluster with multiple network interfaces. What must done to enable administrative tasks to be performed remotely on the cluster nodes?

A. Associate a permanent Service IP address for each HA node.

B. Configure the boot IP Address on the same VLAN as the service IP Address.

C. Configure a persistent IP Address for each node on the service IP network. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – 100% Pass Guarantee 7 IBM 000-332 Exam

D. Create a route on the switch and translate the Service IP address to the boot IP address using NAT.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

When using PowerHA 7, a shared volume group (VG) must be configured as____________.

A. Scalable VG

B. Cluster aware VG

C. Concurrent capable VG

D. Enhanced concurrent VG

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

What step can be taken after installing PowerHA, and before creating a cluster, to ensure that unauthorized communication between systems using clcomd is prevented?

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A. Remove the rhosts file where PowerHA is installed.

B. Disable the rhost daemon on all systems PowerHA is installed.

C. Remove the write permission on the rhosts file installed with PowerHA.

D. Put the IP addresses of planned cluster nodes in the rhosts file installed with PowerHA.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15

Which operation can be done by DARE?

A. Change node name

B. Change cluster name

C. Change application server name

D. Change failover policy of resource group

Correct Answer: C

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Highest standard 646-223 Cisco certification exam test practice

QUESTION 1

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users. Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. A full Cisco CallManager solution

B. A full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity

C. Cisco CallManager Express

D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?

A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP components are integrated.

B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.

C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.

D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

You require an easy-to-use, web-enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a

converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.

Which tool should you use?

A. Cisco ROI analysis

B. Cisco CNIC

C. business case from the industry of the prospect

D. customized hurdle rate analysis

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco CallManager Express remotely. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?

A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution

B. Cisco Network Analysis Module

C. command-line interface

D. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of the customer?

A. Cisco Unity Express

B. Cisco Unity

C. customized XML applications

D. Cisco CallManager

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

An account manager is meeting with a service provider customer planning to upgrade each of its managed routers with a Cisco Unity Express Network Module from the Cisco Unity Express Advanced Integration Module. Because this customer manages hundreds of routers at dispersed locations, the customer is concerned about labor costs in upgrading their routers. What should be your response to this concern?

A. Cisco can send a technician to perform the upgrade at each site.

B. Cisco will ship the modules to the subscriber locations, and the subscriber can easily install them.

C. The subscriber should contact the closest Cisco sales office and bring in each router for installation.

D. Cisco will ship the modules to the service provider, and the service provider must install each module at each subscriber location.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19

For following Cisco Unified Communications solutions, which can enhance employee productivity?

A. Cisco netManager

B. integrated services router

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express

D. Cisco Unified CallConnector for Microsoft Windows

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21

You work as the network administrator at Pass4sure.com. And you are meeting the CFO from a financial consulting company, the company has several small offices and some of the employees work from home. The CFO tells you that the company has high travel expenses and would like to reduce these expenses by sharing documents in real time and offering online events.

Which technology should you recommend to the CFO to reduce travel expenses?

A. WebEx

B. Cisco Unified Video Advantage and Cisco IP Communicator

C. A Cisco Unified IP phone with XML application

D. Cisco Unity Express with group delivery mailboxes

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22

Cisco CallManager Express coupled with what other Cisco technology acts as a call-processing solution for small and medium-sized businesses?

A. Cisco Media Convergence Server

B. Catalyst switch

C. integrated services router

D. analog phone gateway

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23

An account manager is meeting with a customer who is running Cisco 2821 Integrated Services Routers at various branches with Cisco Unity Express Network Module cards in each router. The customer has decided to upgrade to Cisco 2851 Integrated Services Routers for various reasons. The customer wants to maintain the same level of voice mail and auto attendant as before and is concerned whether new equipment will need to be purchased.

What should be your response to the customer?

A. Upgrade to the new routers and purchase a Cisco Unity Express Network Module Enhanced Capacity.

B. Keep the same routers and purchase a Cisco Unity Express Network Module Enhanced Capacity.

C. Upgrade to the new routers and keep the same Cisco Unity Express Network Module.

D. Upgrade to Cisco 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers and keep the same Cisco Unity Express Network Module.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

The e*Gate product is primarily used for Application Integration via:

A. Moving messages between internal and external message queues

B. Transformation, application and data integration, and event propagation to/from internal/external systems

C. Programming in Monk and Java programming languages

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

An e*Gate Schema:

A. Is comprised of at least one e*Way, Collaboration, Collaboration Rule, Multi-Mode e*Way, IQ and Event Type

B. Is all configuration information organized into a logical project

C. Is stored in a file with the extension .rdb on each respective Participating Host

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Where are the Schema related files maintained?

A. eGate/Server/registry/.rdb

B. eGate/Server/registry/repository/Schemas.rdb

C. eGate/Server/registry/repository/ directory

D. eGate/client/monk scripts/common directory

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6

The file system threshold is available only when a function of the:

A. Registry Service is customized

B. Installer Service is running

C. Control Broker Service is configured to control the hard drive

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

How do you import an external file and register it in an e*Gate Schema?

A. Use the stcinstd.exe to import the file

B. Use the Import Module option

C. Use the Commit to Sandbox option

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

When upgrading from previous versions of e*Gate, a user may be prompted (by the installation wizard) to back up RDB files, SeeBeyond recommends backing up these files because:

A. They contain information about the e*Gate security system

B. They contain configuration information for Participating Hosts and Schemas installed on the system

C. They contain all configuration information for a single Schema

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

When deleting a Schema, which e*Gate service must be stopped?

A. The Control Broker service for the Schema to be deleted

B. The e*Gate Registry Service

C. The Lightweight Installer Service

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13

The e*Gate GUI Host may be installed on which supported platforms?

A. Windows 98

B. Windows 2000

C. Unix HP (via Exceed)

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

The role of the Control Broker component is to:

A. Start and stop processes

B. Selectively forward alert, status, and configuration messages to the appropriate GUIs

C. Collect log events and insert them into the logs database

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15

By default, the range of the port number for the Control Broker on all newly created Schemas is:

A. 6000-6500

B. 5000-5500

C. 2000-2500

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A customer wants to implement LAN-free backups to improve backup and recovery times in their virtualized environment, Which of the following is a requirement?

A. SSP

B. NPIV

C. FCoE

D. vSCSI

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

An AIX 6 customer wants to know how long IBM will provide new fixes for a given AIX Technology Level (TL). The current IBM strategy is to provide what length of support to customers with SWMA?

A. Approximately 2 years if the customer is running any TL

B. Approximately 1 year if the customer is running TL6 or later

C. Approximately 3 years if the customer is running TL6 or later

D. Approximately 5 years if the customer is running TL6 or later

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which tool can help identity the firmware versions for a Power System server?

A. Workload Estimator (WLE)

B. System Planning Tool (SPT)

C. Inventory Services Tool (1ST)

D. Fixed Level Recommendation Tool (FLRT)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which of the following helps make GPES file systems highly available?

A. Caching read-intensive filesystems

B. Centralized filesystem management

C. Dynamic file placement and optimization

D. Ability to configure multiple paths to data

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

A customer has 14 POWER4 servers and 1 POWER5 server. The customer would like to consolidate their existing workload onto a POWER7 platform. Which tool can be used to recommend a consolidated server solution?

A. Workload Manager

B. Workload Estimator

C. System Planning Tool

D. Performance Management Toolkit

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A customer is deciding between Storwize V3700 and a Storwize V7000. Which statement is true with respect to the connectivity for these devices?

A. Both require 1Gb Ethernet connections.

B. Both require 8Gb Fibre Channel connections.

C. The Storwize V7000 requires 10Gb Ethernet connections.

D. The Storwize V3700 requires 8Gb Fibre Channel connections.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A customer would like to implement a two-node PowerHA cluster using two Power 740 servers. A major requirement is for shared storage to support up to 400,000 IOPS. What storage should be considered?

A. XIV

B. DS8870

C. StorwizeV7000

D. FlashSystem 820

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which of the following applications is available on PowerLinux and not on AIX?

A. GNUCC

B. Oracle RAC

C. Apache Hadoop

D. IBM DB2 Express Edition

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

What is a potential advantage of vSCSI over NPIV?

A. Higher throughput

B. Simpler VIO Server administration

C. Higher number of LUNs supported

D. Minimized cost of vendor multi-path software

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 2

Which of the following functions on the wireless LAN controller is used to determine whether or not a rogue access point is connected to the same Layer 2 network?

A. rogue detector

B. rogue containment

C. RLDP

D. RIDP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

A wireless controller can reside in how many mobility groups?

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. one

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36

When configuring QoS on a wireless controller, the per-user, real-time bandwidth contract is enforced for which of the following protocols?

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. IPX

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 68

The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance provides an audit trail for each device tracked for up to how many days?

A. 45

B. 60

C. 15

D. 30

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 69

Cisco WCS is supported on which two of the following operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. MAC OS X

B. Windows 2000 SP4

C. Solaris 10

D. Windows Server 2003

E. Debian LINUX

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22

There are 30 managed access points on the WLSE. A radio scan is started but fails. Upon inspection of the device list in the reports tab, you notice a red indicator on the WDS access point. Upon inspection of the WDS access point through its GUI, it is discovered that the security keys are not set up between the

WDS access point and the WLSE. Which of the following is misconfigured?

A. SNMP communities

B. Telnet/SSH user/password

C. WLCCP credentials

D. HTTP user/password

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44

A blinking green LED indicates which of the following conditions on a Cisco 1030 Remote Edge AP?

A. startup

B. site survey mode

C. lost connection to the controller

D. duplicate IP address

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance provides an audit trail for each device tracked for up to how many days?

A. 45

B. 60

C. 15

D. 30

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43

Which protocol does the RADIUS server use inside the secure tunnel of EAP-FAST to authenticate the client when one-time passwords are in use?

A. MS-CHAP v2

B. PAP

C. GTC

D. MD5

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19

Which of the following show commands would be used on the WDS to display the access points participating in fast secure roaming?

A. router# show wlccp ap

B. router# show wlccp wds ap

C. router# show wlccp cckm

D. router# show wlccp wds cckm

Correct Answer: B

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Latest version A00-211 SASInstitute test help you pass the exam easily

QUESTION 1

After a SAS program is submitted,thefollowing is written to the SAS log:

What issue generated the error in the log?

A. The syntax of the drop statement does not use an equals sign.

B. There should have been commas between the variable names.

C. The list of variables should have been enclosed in parentheses.

D. A drop statement and a keep= data set option cannotboth be used at the same time.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Given the SAS data set WORK.PRODUCTS:

How many observations does the WORK.OUTDOOR data set contain?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 6

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The following SAS program is submitted:

What will the data set WORK.TEST contain?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which statement is true concerning the SAS automatic variable _ERROR_?

A. It cannot be used in an if/then condition.

B. It cannot be used in an assignment statement.

C. It can be put into a keep statement or keep= option.

D. It is automatically dropped.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

The following SAS program is submitted:

What is produced as output?

A. A file named test.csv that can only be opened in Excel.

B. A text file named test.csv that can be opened in Excel or in any text editor.

C. A text file named test.csv that can only be opened in a text editor.

D. A file named test.csv that can only be opened by SAS.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

The following SAS program is submitted:

What is the value of the variable X?

A. the numeric value 0

B. the character value “01011960″

C. a missing value due to syntax errors

D. the step will not compile because ofthe character argument in the mdy() function.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

The following SAS program is submitted:

If the value for the variable Jobcode is: PILOT2, what is the value of the variable Description?

A. ‘ ‘ (missing character value)

B. Unknown

C. Senior Pilot

D. SENIOR PILOT

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

The following code was modified to generate the results further below:

The following results were generated to display only specific statistics and limit the decimals with the modification:

Which statement below was modified or added to generate the results above:

A. var Height / nobs min max mean maxdec=1;

B. proc means data=SASHELP.CLASS maxdec=1 ;

C. proc means data=SASHELP.CLASS min max mean maxdec=1;

D. output nobs min max mean maxdec=1;

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Given the contents of the raw data file ‘EMPLOYEE.TXT’

Which SAS informat correctly completes the program?

A. date9

B. mmddyy10

C. ddmmyy10

D. mondayyr10

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which is a valid LIBNAME statement?

A. libname “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

B. libname mysasdata “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

C. libname sasdata “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

D. libname work “_SAS_data_library_location_”;

Correct Answer: C

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Real exam questions and answers for 350-020 Cisco help you pass the exam easily

QUESTION 40

In order to create a DCC tunnel in the ONS 15454, which TWO statements are necessary conditions?

1.

LDCC tunnels need to be available.

2.

The OC-N port where the DCC will be tunneled needs to be enabled.

3.

A customer circuit must be provisioned first.

4.

Only Ports 1and3 of the OC-3 card can tunnel DCC.

5.

SDCC needs to be tunneled separately for transmit and receive directions

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 1 and 5

D. 3 and 5

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 45

Why is it important to leave some residual dispersion at an amplifier site when 10Gb/s signals in a DWDM system have gone through a dispersion compensating device?

A. Reduces the effect of polarization mode dispersion

B. Avoids gain tilt through the amplifier

C. Compensating to zero dispersion has too much loss penalty

D. Suppresses some non-linear effects like XPM and SPM

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 46

What SAN topology has the ability to scale to very large networks?

A. Switched Fabric

B. Arbitrated Loop

C. Point to Multipoint

D. Loop Channel bypass

E. Point to Point

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 55

What is the effective bandwidth of a 6 node, four-fiber OC-48 BLSR ring if all the traffic on the ring is homed back to one node (hub-and-spoke) without Protection Channel Access (PCA)?

A. STS-24

B. STS-48

C. STS-96

D. STS-192

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 71

What part of the SONET overhead would an Add/ Drop Multiplexer read/write?

A. Section Overhead

B. Information Payload

C. Path Overhead

D. Line Overhead

E. Does not read the SONET frame

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 74

The ML-series Ethernet card provides up to how many active 802.1Q in Q instances per card?

A. 512

B. 4095

C. 255

D. 1024

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 88

In SDH the function of the K1-K2 bytes is to:

A. Specify the level of synchronization of the signal

B. Provide a 64kbit/s voice channel for communication between multiplexers

C. Provide multiplexer section error monitoring using bit interleaved parity

D. Provide automatic protection switching signaling between two MSTEs

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 96

What is the difference in power at the input and the output of the device under test?

A. Cross Talk

B. Return Loss

C. Insertion Loss

D. Passband

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 104

What is the power at the output ports of a 90%-10% Tee coupler that has an 80 m W light source and 1 dB of excess loss?

A. 57.2 m W and 6.3 m W

B. 72 m W and 8 m W

C. 90.6 m W 10.2 m W

D. 60.3 m W 3.2 m W

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 106

Click the Exhibit button to view the confiuration.

Look at the router configuration above. If this router has a configuration-register setting of 0×102, select the proper boot sequence:

A. The router will try to use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, then attempt to boot from a network server, and finally boot from ROM.

B. The router will try use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, then attempt to boot from any other valid image in flash, and finally boot from ROM.

C. The router will try to use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, and then it will boot from ROM.

D. The router will try to use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, and then attempt to boot from a network server.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

A customer is looking for a computer solution for their small office environment. The customer has no special facilities or local technical support. The solution must be quiet and fit on a table in the copier room. The application needs no more than one core and 4GB of memory. They have a storage requirement for eight disk drives. Which category of System x server would be the best choice for this customer?

A. Tower

B. PureSystems

C. BladeCenter H

D. Rack optimized

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

An x86 customer released an RFP for new systems. One requirement is that the configuration must include software for automated Windows OS deployments. Which of the following meets the customer’s requirement?

A. IMM Advanced Upgrade

B. IBM Systems Director Express Edition for x86

C. IBM Systems Director Standard Edition for x86

D. IBM Systems Director Enterprise Edition for x86

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A customer is concerned about rising power costs, and the limited space they have left in the data center. They have been doing some research and would like to know if they should implement virtualization. Which of the following product families should be discussed with them?

A. PureApplication System

B. x3250 M4 servers and VMware

C. BladeCenter, blades and VMware

D. x3650 M4 servers, networking and racks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

A System x administrator is considering new storage subsystems. Which of the following is a benefit of HDD over Solid State?

A. Cost per GB

B. Increased bandwidth

C. Higher transfer speed

D. Higher power consumption with solid state

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A System x customer is finally considering virtualizing their existing x86 server farm. They are risk averse and ask their sales professional to recommend the most widely used hypervisor. Which of the following meets this customer requirements?

A. KVM

B. VMware

C. Hyper-V

D. Citrix / Xen

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Solution design has shown that a PureFlex prospect requires more storage capacity than what is included with a base PureFlex System Standard offering. Which of the following would address the additional storage requirement?

A. Switch the solution to a PureFlex System Enterprise configuration

B. Add features to the configuration to include more storage capacity

C. Engage IBM Techline to perform a capacity assessment of the current storage environment

D. Open an RPQ or SPORE request so the base offering can be modified to include additional storage capacity

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A System x customer is considering replacing their x86 and Power server farm with PureFlex. Which of the following is a major benefit of PureFlex?

A. PureFlex combines compute nodes, storage nodes, networking, and systems management in a pre-engineered solution

B. PureFlex combines IBM and competitive compute nodes, storage nodes, networking and systems management in a pre-engineered solution

C. PureFlex combines IBM and competitive compute nodes, IBM and competitive storage nodes, networking and systems management in a pre-engineered solution

D. PureFlex combines all IBM server type compute nodes, IBM and competitive storage nodes, networking and systems management in a pre-engineered solution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

The System x sales professional is in a meeting with the CIO, VP of Infrastructure, Chief Architect, Operations Manager and the lead Systems Administrator for x86 servers. The sales professional is getting ready to present a solution for rack optimized servers. After everyone introduces themselves, what should you as the seller do to ensure a successful presentation?

A. Understand the role each person in the room has relative to your proposal

B. The executives are only interested in pricing, so do not get into any detail

C. Gear your presentation to the CIO since the CIO is the highest level person in the room

D. Make sure your presentation is suitably technical to appeal to the Chief Architect and lead Systems Administrator

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

A customer is looking for a computer solution for their remote branch offices. They have a small computer room in each branch office. There are six virtualized workloads that each need two cores of processing power and 8GB of memory. They need to be able to failover workloads within the branch office. Space, remote management and future expansion are the primary drivers of this solution. Which of the following System x or PureFlex solutions would be the least expensive choice for this customer?

A. PureSystems with external disk

B. A tower server with internal disk

C. PureSystems with integrated V7000

D. Rack optimized with shared external disk

QUESTION 15

A prospective PureFlex customer is also considering Cisco UCS. Which of the following would be most appropriate to assist a seller in defining Flex advantages compared to a specific Cisco UCS solution?

A. ATS

B. IGF

C. Bidwinroom

D. Competeline

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Q1:

When a drive mapping for a user fails, in which of the following may the event be displayed?

1.

Audit Trail

2.

Usage Tracking viewer

3.

An Alerting e-mail

4.

Workspace Analysis details

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4 Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3 Q3: An administrator changed the Zero Profile mode of an existing application. Users had existingstored settings for that application. A week later, the administrator switched the application back

into its previous Zero Profile mode. Users now have their previous, week-old settings back. Which Migration Setting has the administrator used for the switches?

A. Ignore

B. Remove

C. Apply/Convert and keep

D. Apply/Convert and remove Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Q4:

At which of the following points can Folder Synchronization be initiated?

1.

Logon

2.

Refresh

3.

Reconnect

4.

Logoff

A. 1 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2, and 4

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6 Q6:

The “Comments” which can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application isdisplayed to the

A. end user when the application is started

B. end user when access to the application is requested

C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application

D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Q7:

User Workspace Management consists of

A. Context, Composition and Content

B. Context, Content and Security

C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup

D. Composition, Security, and Extensions Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Q9:

Which of the following USB rules can be used when creating a Zone?

1.

USB Vendor ID

2.

USB Product ID

3.

USB Serial number

4.

USB Storage capacity

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 and 4

C. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 Q12:

An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application in a RES PowerFuseenvironment to track registry and files. Global User Settings is enabled. At application level, theUser Setting is enabled, Preserve is checked, Apply is not checked. Sampling ratio is set at 1:1.Start tracking changes is configured to track changes immediately.

What would be the end behavior for this User Settings configuration?

A. No changes are saved or restored in the user session

B. Changes are fully saved and fully restored in the user session

C. Changes are fully saved but not restored in the user session

D. New changes are not saved but previous settings are restored in the user session

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13 Q13:

A Scope limits a local administrator to his own OU. What is the BEST way to let the administratordefine separate E- Mail Template Outlook signatures for his part of the organization (based onOU)?

A. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to its own E-Mail Template.

B. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to the same E-Mail Template.

C. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to one E-Mail Template with access control set to all OUs.

D. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to separate E-Mail Templates with access control set to the respective OUs.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14 Q14:

When a user has a

QUESTION 15

Q15:

Terminal Servers and Workstations use RES PowerFuse licenses based on

A. thenumber of RES PowerFuse Agents

B. the type of database server

C. number of user sessions

D. the operation system Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

You create a host group named HostGroup1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HostGroup1.

You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HostGroup1 by using VMM.

An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HostGroup1.

You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HostGroup1.

What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.

B. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.

C. Modify the properties of HostGroup1.

D. Modify the properties of the baseline.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is

managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

You create a host group named HG1. You move Several Hyper-V hosts to HG1.

You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HG1 by using VMM.

An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HG1.

You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HG1.

What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) server.

B. Copy the Virtual Machine template to an alternate location.

C. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.

D. Modify the properties of HG1.

E. Modify the properties of the baseline.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manager (VMM) infrastructure. THe infrastructure contains several Hyper-V hosts.

You configure VMM to use an update server to synchronize the updates by using a Windows Server

Update Service (WSUS) server.

You attempt to verify complaince with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as

shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts.

What should you modify?

Exhibit:

A. the update classifications of the update server

B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline

C. the default configuration provider

D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts.

You configure VMM to use an update server to synchronize the updates by using a Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) server named WSUS1.

You attempt to verify complaince with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts.

What should you modify?

Exhibit:

A. the update classifications of the update server

B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline

C. the default configuration provider

D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Your comapny has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements:

Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console.

Store information about Windows update installation in Configuration Manager reports.

What should you do first?

A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.

B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the virtualization hosts.

C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.

D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the virtualization hosts.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

you plan to deploy a single-tier service to the private cloud. The service is configured to use Network Load

Balancing (NLB).

You need to create a Hardware Profile for the virtual machines that will be added to the service template.

The solution must ensure that the virtual machines will use Windows Network Load Balancing.

Which settings should you configure in the Hardware Profile?

To answer, configure the four appropriate setting in the dialog box in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

The network contains an Operations Manager infrastructure and a Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

The private cloud contains a clustered VMM solution that has two virtualization hosts. The VMM solution hosts seven virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as showin in the following table.

You configure Dynamic Optimization to use the following settings:

A CPU Dynamic Optimization threshold of 30 percent

A CPU host reserve threshold of 15 percent

Low aggressiveness

You monitor the VMM solution and discover that the virtual machines rarely migrate from Server1 to Server2 when CPU utilization exceeds the configured threshold.

What should you do?

A. Set the Agressiveness to High.

B. Modify the CPU host reserve threshold

C. Configure a host profile.

D. Enable Power Optimization

Correct Answer: A Exam B

QUESTION 1

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

The private cloud contains 200 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. All of the servers are managed

by Operations Manager.

The private cloud contains an application named App1 that is deployed on-demand to several servers.

The servers that run the application are identified by a registry value set during the application’s

installation.

You create a monitor that targets all of the servers.

You need to modify the monitor to only affect the servers that have the application installed.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the

list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Build List and Reorder:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager

infrastructure.

The network contains a Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 organization.

You plan to import the Exchange Server 2010 Management Pack.

You need to configure Operation Manager to send Exchange-related notifications to Exchange Server

administrators.

What should you create first?

A. a channel

B. a User Role

C. an Exchange Server 2010 Send Connector

D. a monitor

E. an Exchange Server 2010 transport rule.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

You plan to monitor a Microsoft .NET application named App1 that is hosted in the private cloud.

You need to import the management packs required to monitor the application.

Which management packs should you import?

A. the Windows Server Operating System management pack and the Windows Server 2008 Internet Information Services Management Pack

B. the Windows Server 2008 Operating System (Discovery) management pack and the Windows Server 2008 Internet Information Services Management Pack

C. the Windows Server Internet Information Service 7 Management Pack and the Operations Manager APM Web IIS 7 managment Pack

D. the Windows Server 2008 Operating System (Monitoring) management pack and the Operations Manager APM Web IIS 7 management pack

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

What is spyware?

A. Software that opens an undocumented port on your server and allows attackers to control your system

B. Software that determines and reports improper software licensing

C. Software that gathers information and relays it to outside parties

D. Software that reports security holes to hackers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Each system in a TCP/IP network must be configured with an IP address and a subnet mask. The subnet mask identifies what parts of an IP address?

A. Loopback and broadcast

B. Network portion and host portion

C. The number of bytes per field

D. Source and destination

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

In XHTML, what is one of the functions of the tag?

A. To create a check box in a form

B. To create a scrolling select list in a form

C. To create a record in a database

D. To create a data cell in a table

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following Web site maintenance functions helps ensure that users continue to visit your site?

A. Clearing the cache

B. Fixing dead links

C. Changing page locations

D. Moving links

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which type of encryption uses a pair of keys, in which one key is used to encrypt information and the other key is used to decrypt that information?

A. Hash encryption

B. One-way encryption

C. Symmetric encryption

D. Asymmetric encryption

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

In general, which choice lists the protocols that must be configured in order to send and receive e- mail?

A. SMTP and POP3

B. HTTP and SMTP

C. NNTP and IMAP

D. POP3 and IMAP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which of the following accurately describes a difference between a Java servlet and a PHP script?

A. Servlets can be used only to communicate with databases, whereas PHP scripts can be used to provide additional features.

B. Servlets must be interpreted, whereas PHP scripts are only compiled.

C. PHP scripts can be used only to communicate with databases, whereas servlets can be used to provide additional features.

D. Servlets must be compiled, whereas PHP scripts are only interpreted.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) organizes transmitted information into datagrams or packets?

A. Session layer

B. Network layer

C. Data link layer

D. Application layer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

What is an intranet?

A. A searchable internal repository that stores an organization’s proprietary documents “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www. 4 CIW 1D0-510: Practice Exam

B. A TCP/IP-based network accessible only by an organization’s members and employees

C. A TCP/IP-based network accessible only by an organization’s internal employees and select external clients

D. A worldwide network available to anyone who has a TCP/IP connection on a computer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

You have two computers, each with a different operating system. One is a Linux system, which uses the Gnu Public License (GPL). You can use this Linux software free of charge, and you can make changes to code that created the operating system. The other system is a Windows system. Which of the following describes a typical commercial software license?

A. It allows you to make changes to the operating system code, but only if you agree not to redistribute the code.

B. It describes the steps you must first perform to install the system.

C. It allows you to use the software, but does not imply any penalties if you violate the license.

D. It describes the right to use the software on a single computer.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account and introduced policy-based admin auttiohration, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the appliance? (choose all that apply) (a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its configuraoon from a backup

(c)

Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.

A.

a only

B.

a and b only

C.

a and c only

D.

a and d only

E.

All of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel

A. g. SSL tunneling)

B. True

C. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL dat

A.

B. True

C. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through .

A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface

B. Visual Policy Manager only

C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?

A. http://forums.bluecoot.com

B. http://services.bluecoar.com

C. http://download.bluecoat.com

D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which ProxySG technology uses the Gaca processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?

A. Blue Coat Reporter

B. MACH5

C. BCWF

D. ProxySG Services

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that apply)

(a)

IWA

(b)

RADIUS

(C)

LDAP

(d)

TACACS

A.

a, b and d only

B.

b, c and d only

C.

a, b andc only

D.

All of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services? (Choose all that apply)

(a)

All

(b)

Any

(c)

Explicit

(d)

Transparent

A.

a, c and d only

B.

a, b and c only

C.

b, c andd only

D.

All of the above

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (choose all that apply) (a) Administrator attempts to access Management console

(b)

user attempts to access the internet

(c)

Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH

(d)

User attempts to access a CIFS file server

A.

All of the above

B.

b, c andd only

C.

a, c and d only

D.

a, b and c only

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A ProxySG is designed to do which of rhe following? (choose all that apply) (a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content stripping, and HTTP header analysis.

A. a and b only

B. b and c only

C. a and c only

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 3

Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express would be most appropriate for which potential customer?

A. an organization that needs to support a large number of teleworkers

B. a global organization with many offices around the world

C. an organization with several regional and branch offices

D. a small organization with approximately 100 employees

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36

A consulting firm has the following description:

4000 employees large volume of voice, email, and fax messages several different applications to handle messages Which Cisco solution will best handle all messages for employees, whether those employees are traveling or in the office?

A. Cisco Unity Express on multiple routers

B. Cisco Unity Connection

C. Cisco Unity

D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 64

A large enterprise customer has the following description:

nearly 25,000 employees headquarters in Europe branches in the US, Middle East, and Asia desire to deploy IP telephony voice, video, web sessions with up to 600 users

Which two solutions are most appropriate for this customer? (Choose two.)

A. installation of one or more Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters

B. installation of Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express on multiple Cisco 3845 Integrated Services Routers

C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express

D. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace

E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Hosted

F. WebEx

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 32

A large chemical company with a limited capital expenditure budget is considering a much-needed investment in a converged IP network but is having trouble justifying the initial costs to management. Which solution would you recommend?

A. IP-enabled PBX

B. lease

C. purchase

D. Cisco Unity Unified Messaging

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which two products enable SMBs and enterprise branch offices to use Cisco Unity Express to integrate voice mail and auto-attendant services in a cost-effective manner? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco 800 Series Integrated Services Routers

B. Cisco 2800 Series Integrated Services Routers

C. Cisco 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers

D. Cisco Catalyst 3560 Series

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16

What are two common benefits of converged Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)

A. retention of existing hardware

B. increased productivity

C. limited extension mobility

D. reduced TCO

E. ensured availability via two networks

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 31

A desktop applications manager is concerned that unified messaging implementations will require schema extensions. Which issue is most likely the greatest concern for this manager?

A. return on investment (ROI)

B. reliability

C. security implementation

D. reporting capability

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39

Which two personal productivity management tools does Cisco Unity Connection combine? (Choose two.)

A. call-routing rules

B. multiservice cross-referencing

C. automated calendar updating

D. web-enabled contact management

E. speech recognition

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 48

In which two ways does Cisco ensure security for a Cisco Unified Communications solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco uses propriety protocols which protect against known vulnerabilities such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.

B. Cisco has a set of design guidelines and software services that, when implemented, will secure the network against known vulnerabilities such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.

C. Cisco Unified Communications solutions are always more secure than traditional phone systems.

D. Because Cisco Unified Communications solutions are isolated from the data network, they are protected against known vulnerabilities such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.

E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports encrypted voice calls.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 60

To find out if the customer is experiencing problems with its IP-enabled PBX because of an overtaxed TDM bus, which

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QUESTION 3

Camp on allows you to queue to transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).

A. False

B. True

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Configurable operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned. What are these two operators called? ( Choose two.)

A. Personal Operator

B. System Operator

C. User Operator

D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which of the following best defines the acronym VPIM (Choose one)

A. Voice profile for internet messaging

B. Vector profile for internet messaging

C. Voice protocol for internet messages

D. Vector protocol for internet messages

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Bridge station Appearance is created via button mappings.

A. False

B. True

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? ( Choose three.)

A. Supports up to 1500 total devices

B. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports

C. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines

D. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines

E. Supports up to 200 total devices

F. Supports up to 72 Voice mail ports

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 9

Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)

A. V3000

B. NBX 100

C. V5000

D. V3000 BRI-ST

E. V3001R

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11

What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)

A. QSIG

B. IMAP4

C. LEC

D. TAPI

E. WAV

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12

IMAP4 capability and SMTP capability are included with NBX at no charge and no license is required

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).

A. Open

B. Other

C. After-Hours

D. Lunch

E. Closed

F. Emergency close

G. Holiday

Correct Answer: ABDE

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QUESTION 2

Which three settings in a repeater Access Point are necessary to match the root Access Point? (Choose three.)

A. SSID

B. DNS name

C. IP address

D. Radio Channel

E. WEP configuration

F. Role in radio network

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 9

The Cisco Aironet 802.11a/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs.

Which two indicate that the card is working properly (not necessarily associated)? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid

B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically

C. green LED blinking fast; amber LED blinking sporadically

D. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking sporadically

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12

What two do Wireless Site Surveys determine? (Choose two.)

A. the size of a cell

B. the throughput of a cell

C. the data rate / range relationship in a cell

D. the number of users that can associate to the AP

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14

What DC voltage is used to power the Access Points through the use of in-line power to the Ethernet port?

A. -5 VDC

B. -9 VDC

C. -12 VDC

D. -48 VDC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

Which three display modes are useful for determining the actual test AP coverage boundary? (Choose three.)

A. Speed

B. S/N Ratio

C. Signal Level

D. Packet Decode

E. Channel Scanning

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 17

When setting up a wireless repeater what should the variable “role in radio network” be configured as?

A. root

B. client

C. bridge

D. non-root

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18

Which two steps are used to set up Fast Secure Roaming? (Choose two.)

A. configure the WDS options on the client

B. configure Fast Roaming parameters of the WLSE Server

C. enable APs on the subnet to allow CCKM authenticated key management for at least one SSID

D. configure the authentication server to authenticate the WDS AP and the APs that use the WDS AP

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20

Local Authentication Service on the Cisco Access Point allows a maximum of how many users?

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 100

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21

Which two methods are used to protect a 1400 Series Wireless Bridge from a lightning strike? (Choose two.)

A. grounding block

B. lightning arrestor

C. insulated mast mount

D. isolated (non-grounded) antenna

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24

Which three management tools are applicable to Cisco WLAN? (Choose three.)

A. MIBs

B. CiscoWorks 2000

C. Cisco QoS Device Manager

D. Cisco Element Manager Framework

E. RF Sniffers and Spectrum Analyzers

Correct Answer: ABC

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r

QUESTION 1

Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate

B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

C. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most costeffective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate

B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor

C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Your bank’s distributed R76 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

A. SmartView Tracker

B. SmartPortal

C. SmartUpdate

D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

A. DES

B. IDEA

C. MD5

D. 3DES

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

A. Asymmetric encryption

B. Symmetric encryption

C. Certificate-based encryption

D. Dynamic Encryption

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm’s business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicions?

A. SmartDashboard

B. SmartView Tracker

C. SmartUpdate

D. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A digital signature:

A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.

B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.

C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.

D. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?

A. Security Gateway

B. Management Server

C. Policy Server

D. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

A. SmartView Monitor

B. SmartReporter

C. Web UI

D. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 22

You are meeting with a customer who is concerned about remote employees connecting to the network with infected systems and spreading infection across the corporate network.

How should you position the Cisco SDN with this customer?

A. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes NAC, which evaluates devices that may not have the latest antivirus software or operating system patch, and either denies access to those devices or quarantines them.

B. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes integration, which enables a more proactive response to threats with greater operational efficiency through the consolidation of multiple security services on the devices.

C. The Cisco Self-Defending Network is adaptive, distributing security technologies throughout every segment of the network to enable every network element as a point of defense.

D. The Cisco Self-Defending Network provides technologies that have intelligent insight into what is running on computers, so there is no possible way for remote employees to connect to the network with infected systems.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Because the initial product cost of a solution is often a fraction of the TCO over the life span of the solution, which two other factors should be considered when talking about the TCO of security? (Choose two.)

A. costs that are collected from a qualitative risk assessment

B. costs that are acquired from end-user training

C. costs that are associated with other similar competitive product offerings

D. costs that are associated with solution deployment

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22

You are meeting with a customer who is concerned about remote employees connecting to the network with infected systems and spreading infection across the corporate network.

How should you position the Cisco SDN with this customer?

A. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes NAC, which evaluates devices that may not have the latest antivirus software or operating system patch, and either denies access to those devices or quarantines them.

B. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes integration, which enables a more proactive response to threats with greater operational efficiency through the consolidation of multiple security services on the devices.

C. The Cisco Self-Defending Network is adaptive, distributing security technologies throughout every segment of the network to enable every network element as a point of defense.

D. The Cisco Self-Defending Network provides technologies that have intelligent insight into what is running on computers, so there is no possible way for remote employees to connect to the network with infected systems.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 3

Which IP telephony component provides call processing, such as signaling that in a traditional voice network is provided by switching equipment, such as a PBX?

A. Voice gateways, such as the Cisco VG248 analog phone gateway

B. Call-management hardware and software, such as Cisco Call Manager

C. Client-based software, such as Cisco SoftPhone

D. Advanced call-handling software, such as Cisco Unity

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

. What creates an encrypted tunnel through a shared public network infrastructure, such as the Internet to provide a secure connection between remote users and a private network?

A. VPN

B. HTTP

C. DSL

D. Optical Networking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

What does a router do?

A. Reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

B. Stores data on network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

C. Routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

D. Broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and wide-area network (WAN)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Which wireless local-area network (WLAN) device is often used to make wireless connections between buildings or campuses?

A. Access Point

B. Bridge

C. Router

D. Client Adapter

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communications system reside?

A. A single, joined voice, video and data network

B. Voice networks only

C. Wireless networks only

D. Data networks only

E. Independent voice, video and data networks

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which Cisco router series is the premier high-end routing platform for service-provider backbone and edge applications that support DS3 for Frame Relay ?

A. 7600 Series

B. 12000 Series

C. 10000 Series

D. 15000 Series

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which Internet Protocol (IP) telephony element is best categorized as a voice application component?

A. Private branch exchange (PBX)

B. Advanced audio conferencing software

C. IP telephone

D. Voice Gateway

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

A Service Provider wants to prevent the repeat of a denial of service (DOS) attack that recently disabled Internet access for several thousand customers. Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?

A. Wireless Network

B. Network Security

C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D. Content Networking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15

What features does the partner E-learning connection provide?

A. Full versions of all Cisco Technical-level classes

B. Lists of training-partner class offerings

C. Live Instricutor-led, web-based classes

D. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning

E. Hosted website that partners use to delver e-learning to customers

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16

Which component should you use to reduce collision issues on a large LAN?

A. switch

B. printer

C. host

D. repeater

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 4

Select two ways to secure hardware from threats. (Choose two.)

A. The room must have steel walls and doors.

B. The room must be static free.

C. The room must be locked, with only authorized people allowed access.

D. The room should not be accessible via a dropped ceiling, raised floor, window, ductwork, or point of entry other than the secured access point.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8

How do you enable a host or a network to remotely access the Cisco IPS/IDS sensor?

A. Configure static routes.

B. Configure dynamic routing.

C. Configure allowed hosts.

D. Configure DHCP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Cisco routers, such as the ISRs, are best suited for deploying which type of IPSec VPN?

A. remote-access VPN

B. overlay VPN

C. WAN-to-WAN VPN

D. site-to-site VPN

E. SSL VPN

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

In which Cisco Catalyst Series switches can the Firewall Service Modules be installed?

A. Catalyst 2900 and 3500 XL Series

B. Catalyst 1900 and 2000 Series

C. Catalyst 4200 and 4500 Series

D. Catalyst 6500 and 7600 Series

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16

Which protocol does the Cisco Web VPN solution use?

A. SSH

B. Telnet

C. SSL

D. IPSec

E. XML

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17

During which phase of an attack does the attacker attempt to identify targets?

A. penetrate

B. propagate

C. persist

D. probe

E. paralyze

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19

What is considered the main administrative vulnerability of Cisco Catalyst switches?

A. SNMP

B. Telnet

C. Poor passwords

D. Poor encryption

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23

Which component within the Cisco Network Admission Control architecture acts as the policy server for evaluating the endpoint security information that is relayed from network devices, and for determining the appropriate access policy to apply?

A. CiscoWorks

B. CiscoWorks VMS

C. Cisco Secure ACS

D. Cisco Trust Agent

E. Cisco Security Agent

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25

Which method does a Cisco firewall use for packet filtering?

A. inspection rules

B. ACLs

C. Security policies

D. VACLs

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35

Which connections does stateful packet filtering handle?

A. TCP and UDP

B. Packet

C. TCP only

D. ICMP

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Certkiller chose the Cisco CSA product to protect the network against the newest attacks. Cisco Security Agent provides Day Zero attack prevention by using which of these methods?

A. Using signatures to enforce security policies

B. Using API control to enforce security policies

C. Using stateful packet filtering to enforce security policies

D. Using algorithms that compare application calls for system resources to the security policies

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17

The Certkiller security administrator is installing the CSA MC program on a server. What application is installed on the server after the CSA MC is installed?

A. Cisco Trust Agent

B. ACS

C. SOL

D. CSA

E. Cisco Works

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26

Groups have been configured in the Certkiller CSA MC. Which of these is a reason for using groups to administer Agents?

A. To link similar devices together

B. To complete configuration changes on groups instead of hosts

C. To complete the same configuration on like items

D. To apply the same policy to hosts with similar security requirements

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27

Which definitions can be used to allow consistent configuration of policies across multiple systems and can also be used for event reporting purposes?

A. Hosts

B. Software updates

C. Agents kits

D. Registration control

E. Groups

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29

The Certkiller CSA administrator has just added some of the Certkiller hosts into a group. What is a benefit of putting hosts into groups?

A. There is no need to configure rules

B. There is no need to configure rule modules

C. The administrator can deploy rules in test mode

D. The administrator does not have to deploy rules in test mode

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33

How can you configure a Certkiller host to poll in to the Certkiller CSA MC before its scheduled polling interval; using the CSA MC?

A. Click the Poll button on the Agent UI

B. Choose the Poll Now button on the CSA MC

C. Choose the Send Polling Hint option in the CSA MC

D. Enter a polling interval in the appropriate box on the CSA MC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38

A sniffer and protocol detection rule has been configured in the Certkiller CSA network. What is the purpose of this sniffer and protocol detection rule?

A. to stop sniffers from running on a network

B. to allow sniffers to run on a network

C. to cause an event to be logged when non-IP protocols and sniffer programs are detected running on systems

D. to deny non-IP protocols and sniffer programs from running on systems

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41

The Certkiller security administrator is ready to deploy CSA configurations to the Certkiller hosts. Which action do you take when you are ready to deploy your CSA configuration to systems?

A. Select

B. Clone

C. Deploy

D. Generate rules

E. Push

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50

The rootKit/kernel protection rule is being utilized in the Certkiller CSA network. What is the purpose of this rootkit/ kernel protection rule?

A. To restrict access to the operating system

B. To log access to the operating system

C. To restrict user access to the operating system

D. To restrict administrator access to the operating system

E. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51

The Certkiller CSA network utilizes the network interface control rule. What is the purpose of this rule?

A. To prevent applications from opening devices and acting as a sniffer

B. To provide protocol stack hardening rules

C. To prevent users from opening devices that can act as a sniffer

D. To provide filtering of undesired traffic at the network interface level

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A

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