Highest standard 646-228 Cisco certification exam test practice

QUESTION 1

Which two operations technology strategy development activities within the prepare phase are performed recommending people, processes and tools supporting the operations and management of a system to the customer?

A. Define the requirements for monitoring service-level measurements

B. Identify and assess the operational requirements that address and meet the business objectives and goals of the customer

C. Examine and evaluate existing operations and network management process flows and existing operations and network management designs

D. Define and document the appropriate service-level requirements associated with availability, capacity and security that correlate within the technology service delivery goals

E. Analyze documented business and technology requirements of the customer

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10

Which two are phases of a project life cycle? (Choose two)

A. Plan

B. Business Requirements Definition

C. Operational Readiness Assessment

D. Design

E. Network Readiness Assessment

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12

Which two are phases of a project life cycle ? ( Choose two)

A. Network Readiness Assessment

B. Plan

C. Business Requirements Definition

D. Operational Readiness Assessment

E. Design

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 14

Which of the following phases represent the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach ?

A. Presales, Project Planning, Development, Implementation, Operations Testing and Operations Sign-off

B. Initiation, Planning, Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, Operations and Maintenance

C. Project Planning, Site Assessment, Risk Assessment, Solution Selection and Acquisition, Testing and Operations

D. Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation and Production

E. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate and Optimize

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15

One of the tasks within the Business Case Alignment Service Component is Analyze and Document Hard Dollar, Productivity and Business initiative Gains. Which Section of the Optimization Report should contain this information?

A. ROI Analysis Initiatives Section

B. Departmental Initiatives Section

C. Logical-level Functionality Section

D. User Absorption Section

E. Gap Analysis Section

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

Which three reference Material are used to assist with tasks that are involved in hosting a feature/function design workshop activity? ( Choose three.)

A. Incident Logs

B. Systems Requirements validation report

C. Technical Requirements Document

D. Letter of Understanding Template

E. IPC financial Justification case study

F. High Level Design

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19

Which three tasks are performed in the system monitoring service component of the operate phase?

A. Monitor system to identify occurrences of service-level metrics dropping

B. Analyze process exceptions

C. Notify interested parties of the problems identified and escalate per-customer requirements

D. Verify Configuration management database

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20

Which tasks uses the continuous improvement plan for the service assurance component within the operate phase?

A. Document Serial Numbers

B. Analyze Process Exceptions

C. Produce Service Level Reporting

D. Conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment

E. Document New System Requirements

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21

Which services component within the prepare phase provides financial justification and business benefits for Certkiller .com to review and evaluate before investing in the technology?

A. Statement of Work Development

B. Technology Strategy Development

C. Business Case Development

D. Business Requirements Development

E. Executive Summary Development

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24

Within the conduct business requirements workshop activity, which three templates and/or tools assists with the document vertical business initiatives requirement tasks? (Choose three.)

A. Account planning tool

B. Business Requirements Documents

C. Initiative Interview Templates

D. Site Survey

E. Value Assessment Worksheet

F. Vertical industry Snapshots

Correct Answer: BCF

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QUESTION 1

What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 120 seconds

D. 180 seconds

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address 192.168.0.1/16?

A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16

B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16

C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate

D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

How do you disable Split Horizon?

A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise

B. unconfig rip splithorizon

C. disable rip splithorizon

D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Exhibit:

Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH command?

A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.

B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.

C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.

D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Internal routers within an OSPF area are either DRs, BDRs, or __________.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10

STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while leaving the other STPDs inactive?

A. enable stpd s1

B. enable s1 stpd

C. None of these

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

How would you change the password for John Doe’s management account?

A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.

B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.

C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.

D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?

A. ExtremeWare 4.x

B. ExtremeWare 5.x

C. ExtremeWare 6.x

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15

When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different STPDs to share the same port when tagged.

A. True

B. False Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system

management interface (SMI).

Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?

A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.

B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA is for customers.

C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA provides access to day-to-day administration functions.

D. Old hardware and software (Pre ?5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and software

(5.x and later) is administered using ASA.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit. Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group 50?

A. Display board CLAN10

B. List node-name all

C. List ip-address nodes

D. List ip-interface nodes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media Gateway and

a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and MM71 in the slot V2,

and an MM712 in the slot V3.

Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?

A. MM710

B. MM712

C. MGP on the media gateway

D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to “point” to Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension, you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was used on each log-on attempt.

You look up the user’s information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the security code field is.

A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.

B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.

C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.

D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

You want a user’s station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only. Which station configuration will achieve this?

A. Assign COR 11 to user’ station, In COR11. Set COR-to COR calling permission = `n’ for all except COR 10. Assign COR to 5605 and 5608. Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.

B. The FRL = 7to user’s station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608. Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser

C. Assign COR 10 to user’s station. In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = `n’ for all except. Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608. Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.

D. The FRL = 5 to user’s station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608. Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

You have to add a new G650 Media Gateway to the system. Which command will perform this I A. add cabinet next

B. add port network next

C. add media ?gateway next

D. add G6SO-port next.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Although not exactly the same, a bridged call appearance and a team button can perform some of the same functions. Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

Which statement correctly contrasts the team button and bridged call appearance?

A. The team button does not allow conferencing to an active call or speed dial to the monitored station.

B. The team button allows conferencing to an active call and making outgoing calls for the monitored station.

C. The bridged call appearance does not allow conferencing to an active call or speed dial to the mirrored station.

D. The bridged call appearance allows conferencing to an active call and making outgoing calls for the mirrored station.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

Consider the settings shown in exhibit displayed by using the display route ?pattern command. You must deny calls from users in COR 10 to use route pattern 1. What should the fault restriction level (FRL) for COR 10 be?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. 6

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

With reference to the list trace station 1101 printout shown in the exhibit, what statement describes what happened during the time period of the trace?

A. Station 1101 called station, hung-up and finally called station 100.

B. Station 1101 called station 1000, the unanswered call went to the voicemail, and finally station 1101 called 1001.

C. Station 1101 called station 1000, and the station answered, then station 1000 transferred to call to station 1001.

D. Station 1101 called station 1000, unanswered; the call covered the station 1001.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15

Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

You are configuring Personal Station Access (PSA) and you configure the Communication Manager with the following settings:

-

Set TTI enabled = `Y’

-

Set PSA Associated code = `25′ and disassociate code `#25′

-

Set security code for the station = `1234′

You activate the station by keying in FAC for PSA, station extension number, `#’, the security code of the

station, and `#’. However, the station is not activated.

Which statement describes the issue to be addressed?

A. You need to set TTI = `n’

B. You did not enable PSA on the COS of the station.

C. You should not set the security code in sequential order.

D. You did not key in the correct activation sequence

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How much power is the system currently using? see exhibit below,,,

A. 663 W

B. 1150 W

C. 1850 W

D. 6000 W

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

What is the maximum long-term normal operating temperature of the Cisco CRS-1, ASR 9000 Series Routers, and XR 12000 Series Routers?

A. 40C (104F)

B. 50C (122F)

C. 55C (131F)

D. 65C (149F)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?

A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.

B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.

C. The modular services card (MSC) could not be exchanged if one failed.

D. The fan tray could not be exchanged if one failed.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

How many planes are there in the Cisco CRS-3 switch fabric?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 7

D. 8

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

In order to determine the hardware and firmware revision of a linecard, what is the correct command that should be invoked?

A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show version

B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show platform

C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show platform

D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show diagnostic summary

E. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show diag details

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14

Which Cisco IOS XR command sequence will load a specific configuration?

A. (config)#load disk0:name.cfg

B. #copy disk0:name.cfg running-confirguration

C. #copy tftp://255.255.255.255/name.cfg

D. #load commit changes

E. (config)#load commit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Which of the following functions can be configured in the Administration Config mode? (Choose two)

A. BGP routing

B. MPLS Traffic Engineering

C. SDR hostname

D. Secure Shell login

E. nonowner SDR

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16

Which two of the following statements regarding task-based authorization are true? (Choose two.)

A. The user group concept in Cisco IOS XR Software relates to a group of users with common characteristics.

B. All of the user groups are precreated by default.

C. In addition to the predefined task groups, Cisco IOS XR Software provides the ability to custom create task groups consisting of individual tasks.

D. User groups and task groups cannot inherit from other user groups and task groups.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18

What is the main function of LPTS?

A. filter routing updates

B. maintain the Internal Forwarding Information Base (IFIB)

C. classify transit packets

D. guarantee reliable transport service for network management requests

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19

Where is the LPTS policer applied?

A. egress line-card egress queue

B. egress line-card CPU

C. route processor CPU

D. distributed RP CPU

E. ingress line card

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the most accurate description of tiered storage?

A. The setup of a file structure that determines where information is placed to provide added security and long-term storage

B. The export of inactive or fixed-content information to paper or media for long-term storage

C. Location of information based on record type, active/inactive content and the type of media required for storage

D. The assignment of data based on levels of protection, performance requirements, and frequency of use

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Corporate information governance is most likely to be successful when

A. Departments develop and manage their own governance.

B. Information governance is developed prior to solution deployments.

C. IT directs, manages, and oversees governance.

D. Information governance is developed after solution deployments.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

A common characteristic of folksonomies is that they

A. Are somewhat slow to develop because of the initial planning required.

B. Arise in hierarchical environments where administrators can oversee them.

C. Feature strong bibliographic control provided by their formal structure.

D. Provide an opportunity for collaborative classification by multiple users.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A social media team should have representatives from which of the following areas? (Choose 3)

A. Executive Management

B. Information Technology

C. Financial Management

D. Records Management

E. Administrative Services

F. Communications

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6

An organization has just released a new. completely redesigned website. The website bounce rate has increased by 20 percent over the previous site’s. The website manager suspects the issue results from confusion caused by the new website’s structure, layout and/or visual cues. The best recommendation is to start investigating by doing

A. A/B testing.

B. Multivariate testing.

C. Usability testing,

D. Conversion testing.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

A statement of work (SOW) for an information management project is intended to

A. Define the scope of the project,

B. Provide project reporting.

C. Identify return on investment.

D. Identify what is to be delivered.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8

The purpose of conducting a knowledge audit is to (Choose 2)

A. Identify knowledge assets, resources, and locations,

B. Resolve organizational and cultural knowledge issues,

C. Develop enhanced knowledge management solutions,

D. Determine the organization’s knowledge needs.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9

Metadata types used for information management include which of the following? (Choose 3)

A. Descriptive

B. Foundational

C. Structural

D. Core

E. Administrative

F. Elementary

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is the best basis for documenting costs and benefits of an Information Management (IM) solution?

A. Project cost, current storage cost, estimated savings

B. Business impact, software and project cost, increased revenue

C. Number of months to realize financial benefits, estimated rate of return

D. Payback period, net present value, internal rate of return

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A means to capture, monitor, and leverage intellectual capital within communities of practice is known as A. Information Sharing

B. Knowledge Management

C. Information Transference

D. Knowledge Delivery

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Q1:

When a drive mapping for a user fails, in which of the following may the event be displayed?

1.

Audit Trail

2.

Usage Tracking viewer

3.

An Alerting e-mail

4.

Workspace Analysis details

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4 Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2 Q2:

When using multiple directory services concurrently, an administrator can do which of thefollowing?

1.

Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for tree A and for tree B, but not (yet) for tree C

2.

Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for a part of a Novell tree (by setting a mount point)

3.

Use several Active Directory forests in one RES PowerFuse environment

4.

Combine different parts of several Active Directory forests, plus a number of Microsoft Windows Domains

A. 1 and 3

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 Q3: An administrator changed the Zero Profile mode of an existing application. Users had existingstored settings for that application. A week later, the administrator switched the application back

into its previous Zero Profile mode. Users now have their previous, week-old settings back. Which Migration Setting has the administrator used for the switches?

A. Ignore

B. Remove

C. Apply/Convert and keep

D. Apply/Convert and remove Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Q4:

At which of the following points can Folder Synchronization be initiated?

1.

Logon

2.

Refresh

3.

Reconnect

4.

Logoff

A. 1 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2, and 4

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5 Q5:

The Desktop Sampler collects information about Context and Composition. Which of the followingComposition information is sampled?

1.

Network Printers

2.

User Registry Settings

3.

Environment Variables

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6 Q6:

The “Comments” which can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application isdisplayed to the

A. end user when the application is started

B. end user when access to the application is requested

C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application

D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Q7:

User Workspace Management consists of

A. Context, Composition and Content

B. Context, Content and Security

C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup

D. Composition, Security, and Extensions Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

Q8:

What is the extension of the files saved by the Desktop Sampler?

A. .XML

B. .ZIP

C. .DTS

D. .XBB

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Q10:

By applying an Exclusive Filter in the Management Console, which objects are displayed?

A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria

B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly

C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only

D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating they can be modified

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12 Q12:

An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application in a RES PowerFuseenvironment to track registry and files. Global User Settings is enabled. At application level, theUser Setting is enabled, Preserve is checked, Apply is not checked. Sampling ratio is set at 1:1.Start tracking changes is configured to track changes immediately.

What would be the end behavior for this User Settings configuration?

A. No changes are saved or restored in the user session

B. Changes are fully saved and fully restored in the user session

C. Changes are fully saved but not restored in the user session

D. New changes are not saved but previous settings are restored in the user session

Correct Answer: C

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ctualtests

QUESTION 1

Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?

A. LRU

B. HWM

C. LWM

D. MRU

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

What does the area ID of the FC address identify?

A. Group of ports within a switch

B. An individual port within a fabric

C. Location of the name server within the fabric

D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?

A. Source devices must be healthy

B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices

C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices

D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?

A. RecoverPoint

B. NetWorker

C. Avamar

D. Data Domain

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?

A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume

B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration

C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine

D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?

A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications

B. Eliminates consumer’s IT operational expenditure

C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources

D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

What is a key benefit of virtualization?

A. Improved resource utilization

B. Improved performance

C. Enhanced interoperability

D. Unlimited resource scaling

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?

A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated

B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM

C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot

D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?

A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization

B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains

C. Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN

D. Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

A scope management plan in which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared

A. Initiation

B. Colllect requirements

C. Define Scope

D. Verify Scope

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule

C. Actual project cost and schedule

D. Revised Project cost and schedule

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Organizational breakdown structure

C. Resource breakdown structure

D. Bill of materials

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product

B. Cost benefit

C. Stakeholder

D. Research

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deterioring?

A. Control chart

B. Earned Value

C. Variance

D. Trend

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

A. Perform periodic project performance review

B. Identify quality project standards

C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards

D. Complete the quality control checklist

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is an example of risk symptom?

A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B. Force of nature, such as a flood

C. Risk threshold target

D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

During what process is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Controlling

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

A. Responsibility assignment matrix

B. Work breakdown structure

C. Project network diagram

D. Mandatory dependencies list

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 4

Which three of these are Cisco ASA syslog message fields? (Choose three.)

A. triggering packet copy

B. message.text

C. syslog community string

D. logging level

E. default ASA gateway

F. logging device ip

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9

The Cisco VPN Client supports which three of these tunneling protocols and methods? (Choose three.)

A. AH

B. LZS

C. IPSec over TCP

D. IPSec over UDP E. SCEP

F. ESP

Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10

What does the nat 0 command do?

A. The nat 0 command, followed by an access list, specifies the addresses that are not to be translated

B. The nat 0 command, followed by a range of IP Addresses, specifies the addresses that are to be translated using network address translations

C. The nat 0 command, followed by a range of IP Addresses, specifies the addresses that are to be translated when used for IPSec

D. The nat 0 command, followed by an access list, specifies the addresses that are to be used in translations only once

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What does the activation-key command in the Cisco ASA do?

A. Applies the activation key to the Cisco ASDM so the Cisco ASA can be managed using a web interface

B. Applies the activation key to the Cisco ASA operating system, so that the Cisco ASA is licensed and all features are available

C. Activates the SSM module in the Cisco ASA, providing intrusion protection and content filtering

D. Automatically activates the Cisco ASA, allowing it to be configured right out of the box

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17

Which command configures the Cisco ASA console for SSH access by a local user?

A. ssh username sysadmin password cisco123

B. aaa authentication ssh console LOCAL

C. aaa authentication ssh LOCAL

D. ssh console username sysadmin password cisco123

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22

Which mode of operation must you enter in order to recover the Cisco ASA password?

A. configure

B. unprivileged

C. privileged

D. Monitor

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23

The primary adaptive security appliance failed, so the secondary adaptive security appliance was automatically activated. The network administrator then fixed the problem.

Now the administrator wants to return the primary to “active” status.

Which of these commands, when issued on the primary adaptive security appliance, will reactivate the primary security appliance and restore it to “active” status?

A. Failover primary active

B. Failover secondary group 1

C. Failover active group 1

D. Failover secondary standby group 1

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28

Which three of these are encryption algorithms used by Cisco ASA security appliances? (Choose three.)

A. RC4

B. DES

C. Diffie-Hellman Group 5

D. AES

E. Blowfish

F. 3DES

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 29

Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully.

The network administrator for this small site has chosen to authenticate HTTP cut-through proxy traffic via a local database on the Cisco AS

A. Which set of command strings should the administrator enter to accomplish this?

B. Certkiller 1(config)#static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6 Certkiller 1(config)#access-list 150 permit tcp any host 172.16.16.6 eq www Certkiller 1(config)#aaa authentication match 150 outside LOCAL

C. Certkiller 1(config)#static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6 Certkiller 1(config)#access-list 150 permit tcp any host 192.168.16.6 eq www Certkiller 1(config)#aaa authentication match 150 outside LOCAL

D. Certkiller 1(config)#static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6 Certkiller 1(config)#access-list 150 permit tcp any host 172.16.16.6 eq www Certkiller 1(config)#aaa authentication match 150 outside Certkiller 1

E. Certkiller 1(config)#static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6 Certkiller 1(config)#access-list 150 permit tcp any host 172.16.16.6 eq www Certkiller 1(config)#aaa authentication match 150 outside asa2

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36

Which three types of information can be found in the syslog output for an adaptive security appliance? (Choose three.)

A. default router

B. interface packet received

C. hostname of the packet sender

D. time stamp and date

E. logging level

F. message text

Correct Answer: DEF

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QUESTION 2

Which protocol is recommended for low cost, long distance connectivity for business continuance?

A. FC

B. GbE

C. FCIP

D. SCSI

E. iSCSI

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which three statements are true? (Choose three)

A. The MDS 9000 family supports Fibre Channel connectivity and low-cost iSCSI connectivity in the fabric.

B. The MDS 9000 family supports multiple protocols which allows the platform to support cost effective storage connectivity.

C. The MDS 9000 platform supports TCP/IP natively which allows any port to function as either an Ethernet or Fibre Channel port.

D. By providing FCIP in the same platform, the MDS 9000 offers the customer a cost-effective implementation of enterprise-wide business continuance with common management, security, and diagnostic software.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6

Which connectivity is most cost effective for providing business continuance between remote sites using the MDS?

A. FCIP

B. FICON

C. DWDM

D. CWDM

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Synchronous replication of critical business information is most prevalent in which industry?

A. Finance

B. Health care

C. Government

D. Manufacturing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

What Cisco networking products do storage-to-storage replication over IP networks using FCIP?

A. 9216 and 9506 MDS

B. 7200 and 7400 routers

C. The Catalyst 6500 and the 7200

D. The 7000 router and the 9000 MDS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A customer needs uninterrupted availability of mission-critical services to employees, customers, and

partners.

Which two

QUESTION 11

Which characteristics differentiate Cisco MDS and McData?

A. Scalability and performance.

B. High availability and performance.

C. Integrated multiprotocol support and performance.

D. Integrated multiprotocol support and high availability.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

How are SAN backups different from LAN and dedicated backups?

A. SAN backups require LAN bandwidth and server processing.

B. Multiple servers can write to the same tape drives and shorten the backup window.

C. Dedicated backups utilize the SAN resources most efficiently shortening backup windows.

D. LAN backups utilize the LAN network efficiently and enhance manageability of multiple backups.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

What do EPR applications require?

A. No data loss and no downtime.

B. Some data loss and no downtime.

C. No data loss and some downtime.

D. Some data loss and some downtime.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 16

Which Cisco product supports both a DWDM and a Fibre Channel over SONET/SDH solution?

A. 7200/7400

B. MDS-9000

C. ONS 15530

D. ONS 15454

E. ONS 15540 ESPx

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate

B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

C. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most costeffective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate

B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor

C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?

A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file

B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP

C. Password, Management Server IP

D. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Message digests use which of the following?

A. SHA-1 and MD5

B. IDEA and RC4

C. SSL and MD4

D. DES and RC4 Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

A. DES

B. IDEA

C. MD5

D. 3DES

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

A. Asymmetric encryption

B. Symmetric encryption

C. Certificate-based encryption

D. Dynamic Encryption

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm’s business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicions?

A. SmartDashboard

B. SmartView Tracker

C. SmartUpdate

D. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?

A. Security Gateway

B. Management Server

C. Policy Server

D. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.

A. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables

B. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP

C. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP

D. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?

A. Physical and Data

B. Session and Transport

C. Data and Network

D. Presentation and Application

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

A new MARS appliance has been installed in the Certkiller network. Which protocol is used for transporting the event data from Cisco IPS 5.0 and later devices to the Cisco Security MARS appliance?

A. RDEP over SSL

B. SDEE over SSL

C. SSH

D. SYSLOG

E. All of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs Certkiller, is curious about attack

methodologies. Match the technology with the appropriate description.

Use each technology once and only once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4

A new MARS appliance has been installed in the Certkiller network. Which three features of Cisco Security MARS provide for identity and mitigation of threats? (Choose three)

A. Determines security incidents based on device messages, events, and sessions

B. Provides incident analysis that is topologically aware for visualization and replay

C. Integrates with Trend Micro to clean infected hosts

D. Performs mitigation on Layer 2 ports and at Layer 3 choke points

E. Provides a security solution for preventing DDoS attacks

F. Pushes signatures to Cisco IPS to keep viruses from entering the network

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5

How is Cisco IOS Control Plane Policing achieved?

A. By adding a service-policy to virtual terminal lines and the console port

B. By applying a QoS policy in control plane configuration mode

C. By disabling unused services

D. By rate-limiting the exchange of routing protocol updates

E. By using AutoQoS to rate-limit the control plane traffic

F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your trainee Sandra is curious about Network Security Lifecycles. Match each action with the appropriate task.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

What is a benefit of the Cisco Integrated Services Routers?

A. Intel Xeon CPUs

B. Built-in event correlation engine

C. Built-in encryption acceleration

D. Customer programmable ASIC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

The Certkiller network has just implemented CSA for all end hosts. What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments? (Choose three)

A. Application control

B. Control of executable content

C. Identification of vulnerabilities

D. Probing of systems for compliance

E. Real-time analysis of network traffic

F. System hardening

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 10

The Certkiller network just upgraded to the ISR router series. Which two features can the USB eToken for Cisco Integrated Services Router be used for? (Choose two)

A. Distribution and storage of VPN credentials

B. Command authorization

C. One-time passwords

D. Secure deployment of configurations

E. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit below. As each spoke site is added, spoke-to-spoke and spoke-to-hub connectivity will be required. What is the best VPN implementation option in this scenario? Exhibit:

A. GRE over IPSec with dynamic routing

B. IPSec DMVPN

C. IPSec Easy VPN

D. V3PN

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15

The Certkiller network administrator is installing a new Cisco Security MARS appliance. After powering up the MARS appliance, what is a valid task?

A. Use a Category 5 crossover cable to connect the computer Ethernet port to the MARS eth0 port.

B. Connect a keyboard and monitor directly to the MARS appliance to set up its initial configuration.

C. Set the IP address of the computer to 192.168.1.100.

D. Telnet to 192.168.1.1 using the username pnadmin and the password pnadmin.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 2

Without a service contract that support the refresh of Cisco IOS software, what must customers do?

A. use an alternative to Cisco IOS software

B. purchase releases, enhancements, or updates separately

C. find a network application software that can perform the same functions.

D. Call the Cisco Technical Assistance Center to obtain release, enhancements, or upgrades

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

The Aironet 1100 and 1200 Series components are intended to support which network technology?

A. wireless network

B. high-speed access

C. campus local-area network (LAN)

D. metropolitan-area network (MAN)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which Cisco product is a stand-alone hardware component that blocks unwanted connections to the network?

A. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)

B. Cisco Private Internet Exchange (PIX) Firewall

C. Cisco Internet work Operating System (IOS) Firewall

D. Cisco Virtual Private Network/Security Management Solution (VMS)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A campus local-area network (LAN) is a network composed of smaller________

A. LANs that exist within a business campus

B. LANs that connect one or more business campuses

C. Wide-area networks (WANs) that exist within a business campus

D. Wide-area networks (WANs) that connect one or more business campuses

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

What is an appropriate solution for a company whose employees work on multiple projects with different teams in different locations in the same building?

A. high-speed access

B. content networking

C. wireless local-area network (WLAN)

D. Internet Protocol(IP) videoconferencing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which Cisco series is an affordable wireless local-area network (WLAN) solution that is complaint with 802.11b standards and upgradeable to 802.11g standards?

A. Aironet 350 Series

B. Aironet 550 Series

C. Aironet 1100 Series

D. Aironet 1200 Series

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17

What does a router do?

A. stores data on the network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN0

B. routes traffic down alternative paths and connects th local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

C. broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and wide-area network (WAN)

D. reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24

Which interoperability standard provides a maximum speed on a woreless local-area network (WLAN) of 11 megabits per second?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. service set identifier (SSID)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27

Which device is installed in user devices and makes wireless connections between them and a network?

A. router

B. bridge

C. access point

D. client adapter

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28

Certkiller .com with 100 employees predicts that its employee number will triple in the next six month. It is currently using hubs to connect employee computers. Which solution should an account manager offer that would best meet upcoming company needs?

A. storage network

B. optical network

C. switched network

D. Internet Protocol (IP) telephoney

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

Which four Call Forward user settings are available on the NBX Telephony system? (Choose four.)

A. Forward calls to voice mail

B. Forward the call to an e-mail inbox

C. Forward calls to an Auto Attendant

D. Forward calls to another phone number

E. Disconnect the call after a set number of rings

F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail

G. Forward calls to the LCD and/or the Names Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose

Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 2

How does the NBX administrator assign a new user to a Hunt Group?

A. Select Dial Plan / Table and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

B. Select Dial Plan / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

C. Select Operations/ Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

D. Select User Configuration / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Which four components are required to use the NBX CTI Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) solution? (Choose four.)

A. NBX CTI license

B. Any NBX system

C. H.323 protocol support

D. NBX TAPI service provider (NBXTSP) software

E. Computer supporting TAPI, for example, Microsoft Windows

F. Either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system

G. Desktop TAPI application software, for example, Desktop Call Assistant or Outlook

Correct Answer: BDEG

QUESTION 5

Which three are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose three.)

A. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.1 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0

B. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.190 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0

C. Supports 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems

D. To have user privileges, sign on with a username of “user” and use your voicemail password

E. To have system configuration privileges, sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000″

F. With administrator privileges, you can easily change a user’s password but there is no easy way to retrieve the administrator password if it is lost

Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 6

Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)

A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications

B. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)

C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications

D. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license

E. With an NBX Telephony system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/ from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example., VPN, T1, E1, Frame and Relay

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7

Which two are required to use standards based 802.1p voice prioritization for an NBX phone system? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN tagging must be turned on

B. Requires NBX 3XXX model phones

C. Network switches must support IEEE 802.1p

D. NBX phone must be attached to the network through a PC that supports VLAN tagging

E. SuperStack 3 NBX Network Telephony System and the NBX 100 Communication System do not support packet prioritization

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9

The NBX phones support IEEE 802.1p/q for voice prioritization across the WAN.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which three are features/benefits of using Silent Suppression on your NBX Telephony System? (Choose three.)

A. On average, provides a 42% reduction in voice bandwidth utilization

B. Can be enabled/disabled for the entire system or for individual phones

C. Compresses all voice traffic, reducing packet size and network congestion

D. Eliminates additional voice packets between phones when there is a conversation

E. Enabled devices send small packets with a silence indication when it detects silence in the conversation

F. Eliminates the need for phones to send “keep alive” packets every 5 seconds, as the phones create a connection-oriented network session

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12

How does the NBX administrator install a Disk Mirroring Kit on a SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony System?

A. Backup system and dial plan configuration, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system

B. Backup NBX system configuration, install license key for disk mirroring, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system

C. Backup system and dial plan configuration, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system, install license key for disk mirroring

D. Backup system and dial plan configuration, install license key for disk mirroring, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system, initial disk and perform a disk copy using NetSet Operations / Manage Data

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

Which two NBX Phones support the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard? (Choose two.)

A. NBX 1102 Business Phone

B. NBX 2102PE Business Phone

C. NBX 2102-IR Business Phone

D. NBX 3102 Business Phone

E. NBX 2102 Business Phone

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1

Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to medium-size campuses with growth opportunities due to the switches enhanced security and which two other features? (Choose two)

A. enhanced multilayer software image

B. connectivity to multiple types of WAN connections

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

D. QoS for converged networks

E. modular, customizable components

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3

You are at a client site. It is a medium-sized business and needs a Cisco Catalyst switch that offers high availability and security. What type of Catalyst switches would you recommend?

A. Catalyst 2960 Series

B. Catalyst 3750 Series

C. Catalyst 4900 Series

D. Catalyst 6500 Series

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

The Cisco Unified Wireless Network minimizes the TCO and maximizes wireless network uptime by optimizing which two deployment, management, and security features? (Choose two)

A. unified wireless and wired infrastructure for a single point of control for all WLAN traffic

B. simplified management of central or remotely located access points

C. extension features to wired network services, such as denial of service prevention and ACLs

D. threat defense with a robust wired IDS

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

What would you use to enforce security-policy compliance on all devices that seek to access the network?

A. VLAN

B. NAC

C. EAP

D. WLAN

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

Why can security on healthcare networks be an important issue for customers?

A. offers a rapid return on investment.

B. telecommuting

C. multiple network connections

D. legal mandates

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

A new client of yours is experiencing a growth spurt. The client s IT staff is making network changes manually and, as a consequence, is extremely overworked, You suggest the client implement a network management system, citing which important business benefit?

A. potential for outsourcing the IT staff

B. provision of an out-of-band management architecture

C. threat mitigation

D. reduction in network downtime

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

In which of these phases is a customer s current network infrastructure assessed?

A. plan

B. design

C. implement

D. prepare

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which are three challenges and trends that are driving the need for technology in the retail market?

(Choose three)

A. intense competition that is driven by the increased number of discounters

B. declining customer loyalty

C. compensating for staff shortages

D. changes in demographics

E. high operating costs

F. desire to offer Internet access in stores

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 17

After a client has developed a security policy, what is recommended that they do next?

A. monitor and respond

B. analyze and improve

C. secure the network

D. test the system

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18

What are two security features of the Cisco Secure Router 500 Series? (Choose two)

A. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System

B. Cisco IOS Software Firewall

C. Cisco IOS Easy VPN

D. Cisco Unified Wireless Networking

E. Cisco ASA Hardware Firewall

Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1

The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?

A. operations

B. association ends

C. queries

D. attributes

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

How can UML be extended? (Choose two)

A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)

B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)

C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)

D. using profiles

E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5

Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?

A. <>

B. <>

C. <>

D. <>

E. <>

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7

What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?

A. is not an abstraction

B. can have generalization

C. can have associations

D. is not instantiable

E. can have features

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?

A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine

B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same

C. the two protocol state machines must be the same

D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine

E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general machine

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)

A. transformation

B. upper bound

C. ordering

D. effect

E. weight

F. selection

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 12

What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)

A. Icons are swapped.

B. Interface on Order should point up.

C. <> arrow should have a dashed line.

D. <> arrowhead should be hollow.

E. <> arrowhead should be solid.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13

What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?

A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.

B. p is a port providing a system service.

C. p is a hidden port.

D. p is a behavior port.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15

A ReplyAction always follows what action?

A. AcceptCallAction

B. AcceptEventAction

C. ReadExtentAction

D. CreateLinkObjectAction

E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17

In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which class is most likely created to describe the package itself?

A. Manifestation

B. Device

C. DeploymentSpecification

D. ExecutionEnvironment

E. Artifact

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com has upgraded to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.

You are running a training exercise for ABC.com’s administrators. You are currently discussing the creation of global conditions in Configuration Manager.

Which of the following suitably describes global conditions in Configuration Manager?

A. Global conditions allow you to upgrade or replace existing applications using a supersedence relationship.

B. Global conditions are rules that represent business or technical conditions that can be used to specify how an application is provided and deployed to client devices.

C. Global conditions are a method of associating a user with one or more specified devices.

D. Global conditions allow virtual applications that you have deployed to share the same file system and registry on client computers.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

ABC.com’s developers have recently created a new application. You then deployed the application using the Available option from the Purpose drop-down list.

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to using this option? (Choose all that apply.)

A. If the application is deployed to a user, the user sees the published application in the Application Catalog and can request it on demand.

B. The application is deployed automatically, in relation to the configured schedule.

C. If the application is deployed to a device, the user will see it in the Software Center and can install it on demand.

D. The administrator must approve any user requests for the application before it can be installed.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

You are running a training exercise for ABC.com’s administrators. You are currently discussing the use of Endpoint Protection in Configuration Manager.

Which of the following are TURE with regards to making use of Endpoint Protection in Configuration Manager? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You are allowed to configure antimalware policies and Windows Firewall settings for selected groups of computers via custom antimalware policies and client settings.

B. You are only allowed to use Windows Update to download the latest antimalware definition files to keep client workstations up-to-date.

C. You are allowed to make use of Configuration Manager software updates to download the most recent antimalware definition files to keep client workstations up-to-date.

D. You are not allowed to send email notifications to administrative users to inform them when malware is detected on client workstations.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named

ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

You are applying updates to operating system images while they are in the Configuration Manager library.

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to making use of this update solution? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The risk of vulnerabilities during operating system deployments is diminished.

B. The risk of vulnerabilities during operating system deployments is reduced.

C. The overall operating system deployment to the end user is diminished.

D. The overall operating system deployment to the end user is reduced.

E. The administrative effort for maintaining your operating system images is diminished. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Microsoft 70-243 Exam

F. The administrative effort for maintaining your operating system images is reduced.

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All workstations on the ABC.com network have a 32-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise installed.

ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. ABC.com has an image of the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise, which is deployed to new workstations when necessary. You want to make sure that this image is kept up-to-date.

Which of the following is TRUE when updating boot images? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You can add device drivers to a boot without importing and enabling them in the device driver catalog.

B. The boot image does not change any of the associated packages that the boot image references.

C. You must update the distribution points that contain a version of the boot image subsequent to you making changes to a boot image.

D. You can schedule an update of the distribution point.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

You have been instructed to assign a fellow administrator, named Andy Reid, a security role that allows him to define and monitor security policies.

Which of the following is the security role that should be assigned to Andy Reid?

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A. Asset Manager.

B. Endpoint Protection Manager.

C. Compliance Settings Manager.

D. Infrastructure Administrator.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

You are running a training exercise for ABC.com’s administrators. You are currently discussing Heartbeat Discovery.

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Heartbeat Discovery? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It is the only discovery method that provides details about the client installation status.

B. The client computer must be able to contact its assigned update point to send the Heartbeat Discovery record.

C. You are unable to manually initiate a Heartbeat Discovery cycle on a client.

D. You are able to manually initiate a Heartbeat Discovery cycle on a client.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

ABC.com’s hierarchy includes a Central Administration site and a primary site. You are currently analyzing the Despool.log files.

Which of the following describes a reason for this?

A. To view files that transfer via file-based replication between sites.

B. To view details about site-to-site job and package replication. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Microsoft 70-243 Exam

C. To view the activities of database replication between sites in the hierarchy.

D. To view the replication of files between the site server components and the Scheduler component.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of two active directory forests named eu.ABC.com and us.ABC.com. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager has been deployed in the us.ABC.com forest.

You have employed a logon script for deploying the Configuration Manager client to workstations in the us.ABC.com forest. You are then instructed to automatically deploy the Configuration Manager client to workstations in the eu.ABC.com forest.

You start by configuring a Client Push Installation account, and enabling the Client Push installation option.

Which of the following actions should you take NEXT?

A. You should consider enabling the Active Directory System Discovery option.

B. You should consider enabling the Database Discovery option.

C. You should consider enabling the Site Discovery option.

D. You should consider enabling the Domain Discovery option.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment.

ABC.com’s hierarchy only includes a primary site. Have installed the Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point.

Which of the following describes a reason for installing the Application Catalog web service point?

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A. To provide the Application Catalog website with software data from the Software Library.

B. To provide users with a list of available software.

C. To allow mobile devices to connect to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager servers and receive policy and configuration settings.

D. To validate a statement of health using a sequential series of checks.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account and introduced policy-based admin auttiohration, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the appliance? (choose all that apply) (a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its configuraoon from a backup

(c)

Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.

A.

a only

B.

a and b only

C.

a and c only

D.

a and d only

E.

All of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel

A. g. SSL tunneling)

B. True

C. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through .

A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface

B. Visual Policy Manager only

C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?

A. http://forums.bluecoot.com

B. http://services.bluecoar.com

C. http://download.bluecoat.com

D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which ProxySG technology uses the Gaca processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?

A. Blue Coat Reporter

B. MACH5

C. BCWF

D. ProxySG Services

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that apply)

(a)

IWA

(b)

RADIUS

(C)

LDAP

(d)

TACACS

A.

a, b and d only

B.

b, c and d only

C.

a, b andc only

D.

All of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services? (Choose all that apply)

(a)

All

(b)

Any

(c)

Explicit

(d)

Transparent

A.

a, c and d only

B.

a, b and c only

C.

b, c andd only

D.

All of the above

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A ProxySG is designed to do which of rhe following? (choose all that apply) (a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content stripping, and HTTP header analysis.

A. a and b only

B. b and c only

C. a and c only

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?

A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media

B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash

C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same time.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Which two

QUESTION 2

Which four features are provided by the Cisco AnyConnect client for Windows? (Choose four.)

A. SSL VPN

B. IPsec VPN

C. Host intrusion prevention system

D. Presence

E. MACsec encryption

F. Antivirus

G. Personal firewall

H. Cisco ScanSafe integration

Correct Answer: ABEH

QUESTION 3

Which two statements about CVD and SBA are true? (Choose two.)

A. SBA guides are available for enterprise deployments only.

B. CVD includes everything from rough designs to tested versions of software code.

C. Gold partners have access to a demo lab for each validated design.

D. CVD is technology-oriented, while SBA is market- and solution-oriented.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4

Which two statements about standard clients for wireless, wired, and VPN are true? (Choose two.)

A. Most clients have wireless and VPN clients integrated already.

B. Services of integrated clients differ per OS and include wireless clients, IPsec clients, and L2TP and PPTP clients.

C. Standard clients are easy to manage by a central IT organization.

D. Android mobile devices include the Cisco IPsec client.

E. Apple iOS clients do not include the Cisco IPsec client.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect 3.0 Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)

A. It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.

B. It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.

C. Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.

D. It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.

E. The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

A. Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-584 Exam into one product.

B. Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.

C. Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.

D. Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Which two components are 802.1X components? (Choose two.)

A. Client

B. Authenticator

C. Authentication server

D. User?

E. Accounting server

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16

What are two advantages of IKEv2 and Cisco FlexVPN? (Choose two.)

A. IKEv2 is backwards compatible with IKEv1.

B. Cisco FlexVPN supports interoperability, dynamic routing, direct spoke-to-spoke communication, remote access, source failover, per-peer QoS, and Full AAA management.

C. IKEv2 consolidates several VPN key management features and standards into one new standard.

D. The anticlogging cookie feature from IKEv1 has been improved.

E. IKEv2 uses IP protocol numbers 50 and 51.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21

Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN attacks

B. IP source routing

C. MAC address floods

D. DHCP-based IP redirection attacks

E. Spanning-tree attacks

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22

Which two security features are part of the Cisco Catalyst Integrated Security Toolkit, which is available on almost all Cisco Catalyst switches? (Choose two.)

A. IP source guard

B. Static ARP inspection

C. MACsec

D. DNS snooping

E. SGACL

F. Port security

Correct Answer: AF

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