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QUESTION 7

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your trainee Sandra is curious about Network Security Lifecycles. Match each action with the appropriate task.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

The Certkiller network has just implemented CSA for all end hosts. What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments? (Choose three)

A. Application control

B. Control of executable content

C. Identification of vulnerabilities

D. Probing of systems for compliance

E. Real-time analysis of network traffic

F. System hardening

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 10

The Certkiller network just upgraded to the ISR router series. Which two features can the USB eToken for Cisco Integrated Services Router be used for? (Choose two)

A. Distribution and storage of VPN credentials

B. Command authorization

C. One-time passwords

D. Secure deployment of configurations

E. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit below. As each spoke site is added, spoke-to-spoke and spoke-to-hub connectivity will be required. What is the best VPN implementation option in this scenario? Exhibit:

A. GRE over IPSec with dynamic routing

B. IPSec DMVPN

C. IPSec Easy VPN

D. V3PN

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which two are true about Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two)

A. It blocks all IANA-reserved IP address blocks

B. It enables identification service

C. It enables log messages to include sequence numbers and time stamps

D. It disables tcp-keepalives-in and tcp-keepalives-out

E. It removes the exec-timeout

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14

Which two statements about the Firewall Services Module are true? (Choose two)

A. For traffic from high to low security levels, no access control list is needed.

B. Interfaces with the same security level cannot communicate without a translation rule.

C. Two VLAN interfaces connect MSFC and FWSM.

D. Up to 1 million simultaneous connections are possible.

E. Up to 100 separate security contexts are possible.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 15

The Certkiller network administrator is installing a new Cisco Security MARS appliance. After powering up the MARS appliance, what is a valid task?

A. Use a Category 5 crossover cable to connect the computer Ethernet port to the MARS eth0 port.

B. Connect a keyboard and monitor directly to the MARS appliance to set up its initial configuration.

C. Set the IP address of the computer to 192.168.1.100.

D. Telnet to 192.168.1.1 using the username pnadmin and the password pnadmin.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

Which Cisco security product is an easily deployed software solution that can automatically detect, isolate, and repair infected or vulnerable devices that attempt to access the network?

A. Cisco Security Agent

B. Cisco Secure ACS server

C. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access)

D. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17

What is a benefit of high-performance AIM that is included with Cisco Integrated Services Routers?

A. Hardware-accelerated packet inspection engine

B. Hardware-based encryption and compression

C. Removable secure credentials

D. Support of SRTP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18

In the context of Cisco NAC, what is a network access device?

A. A workstation without Cisco Trust Agent

B. A Cisco IOS router

C. An AAA server

D. A laptop with Cisco Trust Agent installed

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Supernetting requires a minimum of how many consecutive IP network addresses?

A. 2

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts? (Choose two.)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3

What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links?

A. NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)

A. IP

B. TCP

C. FTP

D. NFS

E. UDP

F. ARP

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5

Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask 255.255.224.0. The network will reserve subnets of all “0′s” and all “1′s”. What is the maximum number of available subnets?

A. 6 Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?

A. PPP

B. ATM

C. X.25

D. SLIP

E. ISDN

F. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)

A. NICs

B. routers

C. switches

D. gateways

E. repeaters

F. active hubs

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9

What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an IPv4 address?

A. THREE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks?

A. NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)

A. static routing

B. count-to-infinity

C. resource intensive

D. slow convergence time

E. lack of industry support

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How much power is the system currently using? see exhibit below,,,

A. 663 W

B. 1150 W

C. 1850 W

D. 6000 W

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit.

see exhibit below,,,

How many additional line cards of the same type that are currently in the system can you safely

install and remain redundant in the worse power usage if there is a power supply failure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?

A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.

B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.

C. The modular services card (MSC) could not be exchanged if one failed.

D. The fan tray could not be exchanged if one failed.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Where are client interfaces terminated on the Cisco CRS-3?

A. the modular services card

B. the physical layer interface module(s)

C. the switch fabric interface terminator

D. the Service Processor 40

E. the Service Processor 140

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

In order to determine the hardware and firmware revision of a linecard, what is the correct command that should be invoked?

A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show version

B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show platform

C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show platform

D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show diagnostic summary

E. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show diag details

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9

In which mode can you check the power usage of a chassis?

A. in EXEC mode

B. in admin mode

C. in both EXEC and admin mode

D. in ROMMON mode

E. in environmental mode

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit.

see exhibit below,,,

If you have ROMMONs and FPDs with the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes” and you ran the upgrade

hw-module fpd all location all command, what did you upgrade?

A. upgraded only the FPD for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes”

B. upgraded all of the FPDs on all cards with an FPD regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings

C. upgraded only the FPD and ROMMON for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes”

D. upgraded all of the FPDs and ROMMONs on all cards with an FPD or ROMMON regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which two of the following are correct commands to activate the PIE file ? (Choose two.)

A. install add tftp://172.20.165.36/hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1 activate

B. install activate tftp://172.20.165.36/hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1

C. install add disk0:hfr-mgbl-p-4.0.1 activate

D. install activate disk0:hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12

Which command will correctly deactivate asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0?

A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install remove disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (config)#install deactivate smu location disk0:

C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin-config)#deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 #asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0 disk0:deactivate sync

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

Which Cisco IOS XR command sequence will load a specific configuration?

A. (config)#load disk0:name.cfg

B. #copy disk0:name.cfg running-confirguration

C. #copy tftp://255.255.255.255/name.cfg

D. #load commit changes

E. (config)#load commit

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?

A. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways

B. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways

C. Use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route

D. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

When adding a device to the Cisco Security MARS appliance, what is the reporting IP Address of the device?

A. The source IP Address that sends syslog information to the Cisco Security MARS appliance

B. The IP Address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via SNMP

C. The pre-NAT IP address of the device

D. The IP Address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via telnet or ssh

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Exhibit:

The Service variables defined are used for what purpose? Select all that apply.

A. For IP Management Groups creation

B. For Data Reduction

C. For Query/Reports and Rules creation

D. For Event Groups creation

E. For NetFlow Events Management

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6

To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS Server to publish logs to the Cisco Security MARS, which log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS Server?

A. pnLog Agent

B. None, Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device

C. Cisco Security MARS agent

D. SNARE

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

What are three benefits in deploying Cisco Security MARS appliances using the global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)

A. Users can seamlessly navigate to any local controller from the global controller GUI

B. A global controller can provide a summary of all local controller information (network topologies, incidents, queries and reports results)

C. A global controller can provide a central point for creating rules and queries, which are applied simultaneously to multiple local controllers

D. The architecture provides redundancy in case one of the Cisco Security MARS local controllers fails within a zone

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8

Which two configuration options enable the Cisco Security MARS appliance to perform mitigation? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP RW Community String

B. A NetFlow device added in the Cisco Security MARS database

C. Cisco Security MARS integration with Cisco Security Manager

D. Telnet or SSH access type with SNMP RO community

E. SSL communications with the network devices

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10

Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely or by just logging them to the database?

A. Inactivating the rules

B. Creating system inspection rules using the drop operation

C. Deleting the false-positive events from the events management page

D. Creating drop rules

E. Deleting the false-positive events from the incidents page

F. Inactivating the events

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which attack can be detected by Cisco Security MARS using NetFlow data?

A. Man-in-the Middle attack

B. Day-zero attack

C. Buffer overflow attack

D. Land Attack

E. Spoof attack

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

In What two ways can the Cisco Security MARS present the incident data to the user graphically from the Summary Dashboard? (Choose two.)

A. Incident firing information

B. System-confirmed true positive information

C. Event Type group matrix

D. Incident vector information

E. Path information

F. Compromised topology information

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 17

DRAG DROP Your work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Cisco definitions. Match the terms with the appropriate definitions.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 3

The following ESX versions are supported for direct upgrading to vSphere 4 (Choose Two):

A. ESX/ESXi 3.5

B. ESX 2.1

C. ESX 2.5.5

D. ESX 3.0.0, 3.0.1, 3.0.2

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4

Before you upgrade an ESXi host:

A. Save the ESXi configuration using vicfg-cfgbackup s from the vCLI

B. Update the ESXi restore CD with the current ESXi image

C. Save the current ESXi image to another ESXi server

D. Copy the embedded ESXi image to a USB flash drive

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

What is a valid use case for the No Access role?

A. An administrator wants to prevent a user from launching the vSphere Client

B. An administrator wants to allow only the status of an object to be viewed, but provide no other access

C. An administrator wants to allow the state and details of an object to be viewed, but provide no other access

D. An administrator wants to revoke permissions on an object that would otherwise be propagated

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which pre-defined role can assign permissions to users?

A. Administrator

B. Virtual Machine Administrator

C. Virtual Machine User

D. Datacenter Administrator Edited by Foxit Reader Copyright(C) by Foxit Software Company,2005-2008 For Evaluation Only.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

On an ESX Server managed by vCenter, you create a new user and assign this user Administrator Privileges. Which privileges will that user have on the ESX Server cluster in which this server resides?

A. Cluster User

B. Administrator

C. None

D. Virtual Machine Administrator

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

For what reason would an ESX Server administrator send an end user a remote console URL?

A. to go directly to the state of a specific virtual machine snapshot that can be resumed by the end user with a vSphere Client

B. because remote console URLs are used to delegate administrative tasks performed on the ESX service console

C. to provide a lightweight user interface to a virtual machine without a vSphere Client

D. for quick access to a specific virtual machine from the vSphere Client

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

A request has been made to the SAN Administrator to provision a new LUN. A LUN (LUN 6) is created and the SAN administrator presents the LUN to the ESX Server using the storage array SAN Management software. After a Rescan operation on the ABC ESX Server, the LUN does not show up. Other LUNs from the same storage array are visible. Which of the following could be the cause (Choose Two)?

A. Zoning is not set up correctly

B. The HBA on the active path is shared with the service console

C. The LUN was not presented to the correct ESX Server

D. LUN masking on a range of LUNS is enabled on the ESX Server, causing LUN 6 to be ignored

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14

How is storage multi-pathing configured between an ESX Server and a supported storage array?

A. The multi-pathing driver is provided with ESX Server and is compatible with any supported storage array.

B. Your storage array vendor must provide you a multi-pathing driver for ESX Server and an agent to be installed in each Guest OS.

C. Your array vendor must provide you with an agent to be installed in each Guest OS.

D. Your storage array vendor must provide you with a multi-pathing driver for ESX Server.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Which two are requirements when booting from SAN? (Choose Two.)

A. Boot LUN must have an ID of 1.

B. The BIOS for the HBA must be enabled and correctly configured.

C. The boot LUN should be visible to all ESX Servers for HA failover.

D. The boot LUN should only be visible to the ESX Server that is booting from it.

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 2

Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the Shadow Password Suite?

A. vi /etc/shadow

B. sudo -c “vi /etc/shadow”

C. su -c “vi /etc/shadow”

D. visu vi /etc/passwd

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment variables that apply to all users?

A. /etc/skel

B. rc.sysinit

C. /etc/profile

D. /etc/bashrc

E. rc.local

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks through various network services?

A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.

B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.

C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.

D. Uninstall unneeded network services.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?

A. dhcpcd

B. pump

C. dhcpd

D. dhclient

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

You’re using a communications protocol that cannot handle encrypted passwords. You need to disable the Shadow Password Suite. Which of the following pairs of commands restores the original clear-text passwords that you had encrypted into the /etc/shadow and /etc/gshadow files?

A. grpunconv; passunconv

B. grpunconv; pwunconv

C. gconv; passunconv

D. gconv; pwunconv

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

What would the following command do? cat MyFile | sort | tee | lpr

A. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order and display the contents of MyFile in sorted order.

B. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order and display the contents of MyFile.

C. It would not work because it contains too many pipes.

D. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

You inadvertently change the permission block on /usr/bin/passwd command to -r-xr-xr-x. What would be the effect of this change?

A. No changes in how the command runs would occur.

B. Users could no longer change their passwords because they do not have write permissions to /etc/ passwd.

C. Users’ passwords would not expire.

D. Shadow passwords would quit working.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15

One of your colleagues is showing you the output from a protocol analyzer, which can detect the types of messages that are being transmitted over a network. The protocol analyzer shows a large number of ping commands being sent to your Web server. Others on the Internet are having trouble accessing your Web server. What kind of problem are you having?

A. Someone is using your Web site to test their connectivity to the Internet.

B. Someone is using a DoS attack on your Web site.

C. There is no problem; this is normal traffic from DNS servers and Internet routers checking connectivity to your Web site.

D. There is insufficient capacity on the Internet connection to your Web site.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

When you look through the /var/log directory you see a new file, httpd.crit. Assume that it is a legitimate file, created for legitimate reasons. Which of the following statements is the best possible description of this file?

A. It contains error messages related to access to your Apache Web server.

B. It includes critical notices related to access through your router.

C. It contains critical information related to your Web access.

D. It includes critical messages about the actions taken by your Apache Web server.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17

When you downloaded a kernel patch from the Internet, the name you clicked on was kernel-patch-2.4.4-66.i386.tar.gz. The file that was downloaded is kernel-patch-2.4.4-66.i386.tgz. Which of the following commands will unarchive this patch from the /tmp directory?

A. tar cvf /tmp/kernel-patch-2.4.4-66.i386.tgz

B. tar xzf /tmp/kernel-patch-2.4.4-66.i386.tgz

C. tar czf /tmp/kernel-patch-2.4.4-66.i386.tgz

D. tar xvf /tmp/kernel-patch-2.4.4-66.i386.tgz

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 2

Which service component belongs to the operate phase?

A. Systems Migration

B. Operations Implementation

C. Staging Plan Development

D. Configuration Management

E. Systems Acceptance Testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

In the operate phase, the task accounting for all system assets and configurations is part of which service component?

A. Configuration Management

B. Problem Management

C. Incident Management

D. Change Management

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

The project kick-off in the plan phase provides an opportunity to complete which two of the following tasks? (Choose two.)

A. deliver low-level design document

B. confirm project and milestone dates

C. perform preliminary application discovery

D. confirm project roles and responsibilities

E. understand workflow between departments

F. perform detailed analysis of customer requirements

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11

Low level design, site readiness report, project management plan, network implementation plan, and systems acceptance test plan are pre-requisites for which service component in the design phase?

A. Business Plan

B. Staff Plan Development

C. Migration Plan Development

D. Project Kick-off

E. Staging Plan

F. Implementation Kick-off Meeting

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which of the following is a benefit of the operations plan service component within the design phase?

A. helps to accelerate the implementation of an advanced technology

B. finalizes the location and number of pieces of equipment to be staged

C. helps identify and reduce costly delays and problems in the implementation process

D. helps the customer understand the overall costs to build and operate the network

E. ensures that the final design meets the business and technical requirements of the customer

F. helps reduce disruptions caused by unexpected events during network operations

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 14

In the implement phase, as-built documentation provides which of the following?

A. installs and tests advanced technology system components in nonproduction lab environment

B. technical assistance to customers in resolving complex issues and hardware replacement when needed

C. information indicating customer-specific design requirements and configurations

D. response plan and logistics that will allow customers to respond to support requests on day of solution launch and beyond

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16

Network readiness assessment is an important service component in the plan phase.

Which task is part of network readiness assessment?

A. developing Site Readiness Assessment Report

B. conducting a discovery workshop to gather data and initiate network implementation plan development

C. documenting network availability and redundancy requirements

D. accounting for all advanced technology system assets and configurations

E. assessing current infrastructure and applications and their readiness to support proposed advanced technology system

F. conducting Operations Readiness Assessment

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19

Which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?

A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment

B. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system

C. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution

D. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20

Which one of the following describes the task for completing a network readiness assessment in the plan phase?

A. understanding workflow between departments

B. determining network elements that will be tested

C. performing preliminary application discovery

D. performing a needs analysis

E. assessing current infrastructure and applications as well as their readiness to support proposed advanced technology system.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 21

Which three high-level design development activities within the prepare phase are performed to create a design that addresses the business and technical needs of the customer? (Choose three.)

A. validate the features and functionality of the technology

B. produce a documented High-level Design

C. document and categorize business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security

D. analyze business and technology requirements

E. identify appropriate products, features, and functionalities that address business and technical requirements and goals

Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1

How many layers are in the OSI model?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Your Certkiller trainee is curious about switches and the OSI model. What should you tell her? (Select two).

A. Switches work on Layer 1

B. Switches work on Layer 2

C. Switches work on Layer 3

D. Switches work on Layer 4

E. Switches work on Data link layer.

F. Switches work on Presentation layer.

G. Switches work on Session layer.

H. Switches work on Network layer.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7

As a Certkiller instructor you are giving a lecture on the historical context of Cisco. You point out that a

computer scientist started the Cisco Corporation.

On of the attendants asks you when and where Cisco was founded.

What should you respond? (Select two.)

A. 1978

B. 1984

C. 1991

D. 1996

E. Massachusetts Institute of Technology

F. California Polytechnic Institute

G. Harvard

H. Stanford

Correct Answer: BH

QUESTION 8

You work as a network consultant at Certkiller .com. One of your clients wants to connect an Ethernet

network that extends over a two-mile area.

What network component would be the most appropriate to use?

A. NICs

B. Repeater

C. Personal computers

D. Router

E. Switch

F. Gateway Hubs

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit if a network built using Cisco AVVID?

A. High availability through software and equipment that is configured for protocol transfer.

B. Interoperability through software and equipment that is configured for seamless operation.

C. Improved scalability through software and equipment that is configured for the maximum port density.

D. Greater performance through software and equipment that is configured to achieve seamless roaming.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21

What are two primary advantages of content networking solutions? (Choose two)

A. Increased WAN traffic.

B. Reduced content access time.

C. Optimized network resource use.

D. End user control over content access and delivery.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22

Which network components can be chained together to extend an Ethernet network over several kilometers of miles?

A. hubs

B. nics

C. repeaters

D. personal computers

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 25

Your Certkiller trainee wants to know what network component is viewed as a host.

A. Hub

B. Access point

C. Workstation

D. Switch

E. Printer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28

You work as a network consultant at Certkiller .com. One of your clients has decided to purchase a Cisco

12000 Series router in order to provide carrier-class availability and performance in both the network

backbone and at the edges.

When would this solution be appropriate?

A. For a university that wants to create an integrated communications network that supports distance learning, e-learning, and collaborative research.

B. For a midsize financial services company that has acquired a smaller company, which has locations in three different cities.

C. For a midsize enterprise organization that is migrating to a converged network for its internal employees to address user needs for voice, video, and data.

D. For a new and growing Internet hosting company with global Internet data centers whose business customers depend on the reliability of the network.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32

As a Certkiller instructor you are required to explain how a Cisco switch operates. Which of the following statements should you use?

A. When the switch receives a message it reads the Layer-5 information and broadcasts the message to all computers that are connected to the switch.

B. When the switch receives a message it reads the Media Access Control (MAC) address and broadcasts the message to all the computers that are connected to the switch.

C. When the switch receives a message it reads the Layer-5 information and send the message directly to the intended computer.

D. When the switch receives a message it reads the Media Access Control (MAC) address and sends the message directly to the intended computer.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 2

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network contains 500 Windows XP

Professional computers. The information security department releases a new security template named

NewSec.inf.

You import NewSec.inf into a security database named NewSec.sdb. You analyze the result, and you

review the changes that the template makes.

You examine the security policies that are defined in NewSec.inf. You discover that the settings in

NewSec.inf have not been implemented on your computer.

You need to ensure that the settings in NewSec.inf overwrite the settings in your computer’s local security

policy. What are two possible ways to achieve this goaI? (Each correct answer presents a complete

solution. Choose two.)

A. Run the Secedit /configure /db C:\NewSec.sdb command.

B. Run the Secedit /refreshpolicy machine_policy command.

C. Copy NewSec.inf to the C:\Windows\Inf folder.

D. Copy NewSec.sdb to the C:\Windows\System32\Microsoft\Protect folder.

E. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to open NewSec.sdb and then to perform a Configure operation.

F. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to export NewSec.sdb to the Defltwk.inf security template.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

You are the administrator of 10 Windows XP Professional computers for your company. The computers

are members of a Windows 2000 domain.

Because the computers are used in a public area in the cafeteria, you audit all security events on the

computers.

A user named Marc reports that he was using one of the Windows XP Professional computers when the

computer suddenly shut down with a STOP error. When the computer restarted, Marc attempted to log on

by using the same user name and password that he used before. Marc received the following error

message: “Your account is configured to prevent you from using this computer. PIease try another

computer.” Marc states that he did not do anything to cause the STOP error to occur.

You want to ensure that Marc can use this computer. What should you do?

A. On the computer, save and clear the security log, set the CrashOnAuditFail setting to 1, and restart the computer.

B. On the computer, modify the local audit policy so that system events are not audited, set the CrashOnCtrIScroll setting to 1, and restart the computer.

C. In the domain, modify Marc’s Logon Workstations list to include the name of the computer.

D. In the domain, modify Marc’s account properties to unlock the account.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

You are a help desk technician for your company. Your company’s network includes an Active Directory domain and Windows XP Professional computers that are configured as members of the domain.

Company policy prohibits users from accessing their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. However, users report that they can log on to their computers, even though a network administrator has told them that a domain controller is not available.

As a test, you log off of your computer and disconnect it from the network. You discover that you can log on by using your domain user account.

You need to ensure that users cannot access their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. How should you configure the local computer policy on these computers?

A. Enable the Require domain controller to unlock policy.

B. Set the Number of previous logons to cache policy to 0.

C. Remove all user and group accounts from the Log on locally user right.

D. Remove all user and group accounts from the Access this computer from the network user right.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional portable computer. When you are traveling, you often dial in to the internet to connect to your company network.

Your company has a policy that prohibits Web sites that do not have a Platform for Privacy Preferences (P3P) privacy policy from saving cookies on employees’ computers. Web sites that do have a P3P policy are allowed to save cookies. You configure internet Explorer to comply with company policy.

After you make this configuration change, you receive a Privacy dialog box when you visit Web sites that do not comply with company policy. The Privacy dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X)button.)

However, you notice that these Web sites still welcome you based on personalized information. The Restricted Web sites list in the privacy report lists blocked cookies for these Web sites.

You want to ensure that Web sites that do not comply with your company policy cannot track your access to their Web sites. What should you do?

A. Change the Privacy setting to High.

B. Change the Advanced Privacy setting to block cookies for first-party and third-party cookies.

C. Change the Temporary internet Files setting to check for newer versions of stored pages every time you start internet Explorer.

D. Delete existing cookies that you received from the noncompliant Web sites.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

You are the administrator of the Windows XP Professional portable computers that are used by your company’s sales representatives. The computers are members of a Windows 2000 domain. A Windows 2000 Server computer named Server1 contains the sales data used by the sales representatives in a shared folder named Data.

When sales representatives travel, they use the Offline Files feature to access the files in the \\Server1 \Data shared folder. You want to ensure that the offline files on the portable computers are not accessible by unauthorized persons, in the event that a portable computer is lost.

What should you do?

A. Instruct the sales representatives to configure the permissions on the offline files on their portable computers to allow access for only their user accounts.

B. On Server1, configure the permissions on all files in the Data shared folder to allow access for only the sales representatives.

C. Use a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Encrypt the Offline Files cache option for the portable computers.

D. On the portable computers, enable encryption of the %systemroot%\CSC folder. Apply this setting to the folder and files in the CSC folder.

E. On Server1, encrypt all files in the Data shared folder. Add all sales representatives to the encryption details.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII client computers currently run Windows 2000 Professional. The client computers have a typical disk configuration, as shown in the following table.

You are in the process of deploying new Windows XP Professional computers to users in the graphics department. The new computers currently have one hard disk. Each hard disk is configured as a dynamic disk, and it contains the system and boot volume. To maintain user data, you are moving the physical hard disks from the users’ original computers to the new computers.

Laura is a user in the graphics department. You move disk 1 from Laura’s original computer to her new computer. You do not move disk 0 to the new computer. When you run the Disk Management console on the new computer, the disk that you moved from Laura’s original computer appears with the status of Foreign. When you attempt to run the Import Foreign Disks utility, the Foreign Disk Volumes dialog box is displayed, as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

When you click the OK button, the disk is imported. However, the status of the disk changes to Failed, and you cannot access data that is stored on the disk.

You need to ensure that Laura can access the data that is stored on the hard disk that you moved to the new computer. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Run the Import Foreign Disks utility in the Disk Management console.

B. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Delete and re-create the spanned volume.

C. Convert the moved hard disk to a dynamic disk. Delete the spanned volume and create a simple volume.

D. Run the Ftonline e: command on the new computer. Back up the data that is on drive E. Delete and re-create the spanned volume, and restore the data.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII employees have Windows XP Professional portable computers.

A sales representative named Richard has a local user account on his computer. Richard is issued a portable USB print device. You log on to his computer and disable the restrictions on loading unsigned drivers. AII other local computer policies are configured with the default settings.

You restart Richard’s computer. Then Richard connects the USB print device, but the printer does not appear in the Printers folder, and Richard cannot print any documents.

You need to ensure that Richard can install the printer and print successfully. What should you do?

A. Add Richard to the local Print Operators group on his computer.

B. Add the /fastdetect switch in the Boot.ini file on Richard’s computer.

C. Disable the Prevent users from installing printer drivers Local security policy setting.

D. Modify the Driver Signing Options, selecting the Make this action the system default check box.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network consists of a single Active Directory domain. AII client computers run Windows XP ProfessionaI.

Employees in the sales department use portable computers. AII portable computers use 802.11b wireless LAN PC adapters and a wireless access point to connect to the network. The wireless access point is connected to the company network by means of a wireless bridge. The wireless LAN uses 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

A user in the sales department returns from a business trip and reports that she cannot connect to the company network. You run the configuration utility for the wireless LAN adapter. The status of the wireless network connection is shown as Not Linked. When you attempt to scan for the network, a connection cannot be made. The configuration for the LAN adapter and the wireless network connection is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

You need to ensure that the user can connect to the network. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Clear the This is a computer-to-computer (ad hoc) network check box.

B. Select the Network Authentication (Shared mode) check box.

C. Clear the The key is provided for me automatically check box. Type the WEP network key information for the wireless LAN.

D. Clear the The key is provided for me automatically check box. Configure the Key index option to 1.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. AII client computers run Windows XP Professional.

Tom is a user in the development department. Tom uses his computer to develop new applications. The computer is currently running Windows 2000 Server, which is installed in the C:\Winnt folder. The computer’s disk configuration is shown in the following table.

Tom installs Windows XP Professional in the C:\Windows folder on the computer. The installation completes successfully.

However, when Tom restarts the computer, he receives the following error message:

“STOP: INACCESSIBLE_BOOT_DEVICE.” Windows XP Professional will not start. The existing Windows

2000 Server installation starts successfully.

You need to ensure that Tom can start both operating systems. What should you do?

A. From the DiskPart command line, run the Active c: command, and then run the Rescan command.

B. Run the Dmdiag c: command.

C. Reinstall Windows XP Professional and specify drive D as the installation partition.

D. Restart the computer by using the Recovery console, and run the Fixboot command.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

You are a help desk administrator for your company. You install Windows XP Professional on all portable computers in the marketing department.

Users in this department bring their computers from their offices to a conference room for a weekly marketing meeting. These users need a simple method to manually place their computers in a low-power state without using the Start button. Additionally, they need their computers to start as quickly as possible.

You need to configure the Power Options on the portable computers to meet these requirements. What should you do?

A. Configure the power button on each computer to enable hibernation.

B. Configure the computers to enable standby when the lid is closed.

C. Configure all the computers to use the Portable/Laptop power scheme

D. Configure the computers to use the Minimal Power Management power scheme.

E. Configure the Critical Battery Alarm on the computers to hibernate when the battery capacity reaches 3 percent.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How much power is the system currently using? see exhibit below,,,

A. 663 W

B. 1150 W

C. 1850 W

D. 6000 W

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?

A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.

B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.

C. The modular services card (MSC) could not be exchanged if one failed.

D. The fan tray could not be exchanged if one failed.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

What is the cell size of the cells that traverse the switch fabric on the Cisco CRS-3?

A. 128 bytes

B. 136 bytes

C. 144 bytes

D. 200 bytes

E. 288 bytes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit.

see exhibit below,,,

If you have ROMMONs and FPDs with the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes” and you ran the upgrade

hw-module fpd all location all command, what did you upgrade?

A. upgraded only the FPD for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes”

B. upgraded all of the FPDs on all cards with an FPD regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings

C. upgraded only the FPD and ROMMON for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes”

D. upgraded all of the FPDs and ROMMONs on all cards with an FPD or ROMMON regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which command will correctly deactivate asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0?

A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install remove disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (config)#install deactivate smu location disk0:

C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin-config)#deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 #asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0 disk0:deactivate sync

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

Which answer best summarizes the difference between p and px images, hfr-mini-p.vm-4.1.1 and hfr-mini-px.vm-4.1.1, respectively?

A. P images can only support legacy hardware, while px images can only support new CRS-3 hardware.

B. P images can use an SMU to operate as x86 images.

C. P images can only support Power PC hardware, while px images can support both Power PC and Intel hardware in the same chassis.

D. P and px images can both be installed on the same ROMMON version.

E. P and px images are roughly the same because they are built to operate on the same system.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

Which Cisco IOS XR command sequence will load a specific configuration?

A. (config)#load disk0:name.cfg

B. #copy disk0:name.cfg running-confirguration

C. #copy tftp://255.255.255.255/name.cfg

D. #load commit changes

E. (config)#load commit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

Which two of the following statements regarding task-based authorization are true? (Choose two.)

A. The user group concept in Cisco IOS XR Software relates to a group of users with common characteristics.

B. All of the user groups are precreated by default.

C. In addition to the predefined task groups, Cisco IOS XR Software provides the ability to custom create task groups consisting of individual tasks.

D. User groups and task groups cannot inherit from other user groups and task groups.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17

A network administrator needs to configure a default IPv4 route for a Cisco CRS-1 router. Which Cisco IOS XR command will accomplish this task?

A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15(config-static)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.52.204.161

B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15(config-static-afi)#0.0.0.0/0 10.52.204.161

C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15(config)#router static 0.0.0.0/32 10.52.204.161

D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15#ip default-network 0.0.0.0 10.52.204.161 255.255.255.255

E. it is not possible to configure static routes in Cisco IOS XR Software

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18

What is the main function of LPTS?

A. filter routing updates

B. maintain the Internal Forwarding Information Base (IFIB)

C. classify transit packets

D. guarantee reliable transport service for network management requests

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 4

A(n) ____________________ cloud is a cloud environment owned by a third-party cloud provider and accessible to external cloud consumers. The IT resources in the cloud are generally offered to cloud consumers at a cost. Select the correct answer.

A. public

B. on-premise

C. private

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following are common types of cloud service consumers? SelectALL THAT APPLY

A. Software programs capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.

B. Services capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.

C. Humans that use workstations running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud services.

D. Mobile devices running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud services.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6

Which of the following types of cost metrics make it more difficult to justify the leasing of cloud- based IT resources as an alternative to purchasing on-premise IT resources?SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A. cost of capital

B. sunk costs

C. integration costs

D. locked-in costs

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7

Which of the following combinations of cloud delivery models are possible?Select the correct answer.

A. IaaS PaaS

B. IaaS SaaS

C. IaaS PaaS SaaS

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which of the following scenarios describes the Reduced Investment and Proportional Costs benefit of cloud computing? Selectthe correct answer.

A. A cloud consumer pays a usage fee for only the amount of the IT resources actually used. This gives the cloud consumer organization access to IT resources without having to purchase its own.

B. A cloud consumer pays the expenses associated with the cost of capital in order to fund the up- front costs for the cloud provider IT resources used. This gives the cloud consumer organization the option to budget required up-front costs before committing to IT resource usage.

C. A cloud consumer avoids payment of up-front costs and usage fees for cloud provider IT resources it uses by following the cost of capital model. This allows the cloud consumer organization to obtain access to IT resources with “no money down”. This gives the cloud consumer organization the ability to begin working with cloud-based IT resources with no immediate funds, but then subjects the organization to increased costs later when high-interest rates begin to apply after a pre-defined period.

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following cloud delivery models provides the least amount of administrative control for cloud consumers? Selectthe correct answer.

A. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)

C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

D. The listed cloud delivery models provide the same level of administrative control for cloud consumers.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which of the following characteristics of a software program enables an instance of the program to serve different consumers, with each of these consumers isolated from one another? Select the correct answer.

A. multi-user

B. multitenancy

C. multi-device broker

D. elasticity

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which of the following types of organizations can assume the role of cloud resource administrator for a cloud service? SelectALL THAT APPLY

A. A cloud consumer organization that owns the cloud service.

B. A cloud provider organization that owns the cloud service.

C. A third-party organization contracted by the cloud consumer to administer the cloud service.

D. A third-party organization contracted by the cloud provider to administer the cloud service.

Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 13

Which of the following statements accurately describes the level of administrative control a cloud provider has over an environment (residing in the cloud provider’s cloud platform) based on the Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) delivery model? Selectthe correct answer.

A. Full administrative control over physical hardware, physical network, storage devices, and virtualization platforms.

B. Full administrative control over physical hardware and physical network, and limited administrative control over storage devices, virtualization platforms, virtual servers and databases.

C. Full administrative control over physical hardware, physical network, storage devices, virtualization platforms and virtual servers, and limited administrative control over databases and service implementations.

D. The cloud provider has no administrative control in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

Private clouds can effectively extend on-premise infrastructure to IT resources that are physically isolated in the private cloud environment and remotely accessed via a virtual private network.Select the correct answer.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system

management interface (SMI).

Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?

A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.

B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA is for customers.

C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA provides access to day-to-day administration functions.

D. Old hardware and software (Pre ?5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and software

(5.x and later) is administered using ASA.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit. Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group 50?

A. Display board CLAN10

B. List node-name all

C. List ip-address nodes

D. List ip-interface nodes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media Gateway and

a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and MM71 in the slot V2,

and an MM712 in the slot V3.

Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?

A. MM710

B. MM712

C. MGP on the media gateway

D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one administered

telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office telephone and one outside

cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to es ?in order to use this functionality:

Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin. Which command do you use to verify the field settings?

A. System-parameters features

B. System-parameters customer-options

C. System-parameters wireless

D. System-parameters converge-forwarding

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to “point” to Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension, you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was used on each log-on attempt.

You look up the user’s information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the security code field is.

A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.

B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.

C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.

D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

With reference to the Dial Plan Analysis Tables, how many codes are available in the system for activation / deactivation of features?

A. 2 Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

B. 3

C. 11

D. 21

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You have to add a new G650 Media Gateway to the system. Which command will perform this I A. add cabinet next

B. add port network next

C. add media ?gateway next

D. add G6SO-port next.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Although not exactly the same, a bridged call appearance and a team button can perform some of the same functions. Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com

Which statement correctly contrasts the team button and bridged call appearance?

A. The team button does not allow conferencing to an active call or speed dial to the monitored station.

B. The team button allows conferencing to an active call and making outgoing calls for the monitored station.

C. The bridged call appearance does not allow conferencing to an active call or speed dial to the mirrored station.

D. The bridged call appearance allows conferencing to an active call and making outgoing calls for the mirrored station.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

You need to configure a station so that when a department manager makes calls to employees the manager’s calls will ring even though the called station might have Sent All Calls activated. Although the manager’s station can be designated as a VIP telephone, the manger must be able to selectively activate this feature. Which feature addresses this need?

A. Button activated Executive Calling

B. FAC or button activated Automatic Inclusion

C. FAC or button activated Priority Calling

D. Button activated Send All Calls override

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Your customer has a communication Manager 6.0 branch location with SIP endpoints that need to survive a WAN failure when communication to the core or main Session Manager is unavailable. Which solution will provide survivability to the remote location?

A. an S8300 configured as an local survivable processor (LSP)

B. a simplex server configured as an enterprise survivable server (ESS)

C. an S8300 or simplex server configured as a Survivable Remote

D. an S8300 01 simplex server configured for high availability (HA)

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer’s defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.

A. Staging Plan

B. Implementation Plan

C. Business Plan

D. Detailed Design Validation

E. Project Kick-off

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?

A. Proof of Concept

B. High-level Design Development

C. Business Case Development

D. Business Requirements Development

E. Operations Technology Strategy Development

F. Technology Strategy Development

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?

A. determining network elements that will be tested

B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan

C. entering documentation into knowledge management system

D. developing backup/recovery plan

E. creating an escalation plan

F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 9

Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?

A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco technology or solution

B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced Technologies

C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and objectives

D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following three tasks are executed in the security administration component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)

A. utilization monitoring

B. customer operational account creation

C. identity management

D. security incident management

E. security configuration management

F. security problem escalation

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 13

In the design phase, which service component includes developing and documenting the test case(s) used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets the operational, functional, and interface requirements?

A. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development

B. Staging Plan

C. Business Plan

D. Detailed Design Development

E. Implementation Plan

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

Developing a plan that identifies specific activities required to take existing services and network architectures and implement them on a new platform or as new services is an activity of which service component in the design phase?

A. Migration Plan Development

B. Detailed Design Development

C. Business Plan

D. Staging Plan

E. Implementation Plan

F. Business Requirements Document

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?

A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment

B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution

C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities

D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20

Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a task in the operations implementation service component of the implement phase?

A. operations and network management system staging, installation, and configuration

B. develop backup/recovery plan

C. review Operation Design Document

D. update and document logical and physical topology maps

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23

Which service component within the prepare phase helps customers make a sound decision by providing information relating to financial justification and benefits?

A. Proof of Concept

B. Operations Technology Strategy Development

C. Business Case Development

D. Technology Strategy Development

E. Business Requirements Development

F. High-level Design Development

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Usingportscanner like nmap in your network.

B. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.

C. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.

D. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2

You work as a Network Administrator for ABC LTD. The company has an 802.11b wireless network. You have configured an internal antenna with the wireless access point (WAP). You want to increase the range of the WAP. Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish the task?

A. Install a wireless bridge on the network.

B. Install an external antenna.

C. Install a router on the network.

D. Install one more internal antenna.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. You are configuring a wireless network for the company. You decide to use 802.11b wireless access points (WAPs) for the network. Which of the following could affect the range of the network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. The 5-500GHz interference

B. The 2.4GHz interference

C. A long length of antenna extension cable

D. A very high number of wireless users

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4

Which of the following is an advantage of using wireless IEEE 802.11g over IEEE 802.11b?

A. Wireless standard 802.11g has a greater range of distance than 802.11b

B. Wireless standard 802.11g is easier to implement than 802.11b

C. Wireless standard 802.11g is faster than 802.11b.

D. Wireless standard 802.11g supports Windows XP and 802.11b does not.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

You work as a Network Administrator for ABC LTD. The company has a Windows-based network. You have to configure a wireless LAN on your network. Two separate buildings in front of each other are to be connected wirelessly. Which of the following steps will you choose to accomplish the task?

A. Lay underground fiber optic cable backbone between the two buildings. Configure Ethernet network including network of both building.

B. Configure one Wireless Access Point (WAP) in each building. Place one outdoor Yagi-Uda antenna in each building facing towards each other.

C. Configure one WAP in each building. Place one outdoor Omni antenna in each building.

D. Configure one WAP in each building. Place one outdoor Yagi-Uda antenna in one building. Place one outdoor Omni antenna in the other building.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You work as a Network Administrator for WebTech Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based wireless network. The company’s management tells you to implement multiple-input multiple- output (MIMO) transmission technology for wireless communication. Which of the following standards supports MIMO technology?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11n

D. 802.11

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which of the following organizations provides a seal of approval to interoperable devices?

A. IEEE

B. FCC

C. ETSI

D. Wi-FiAlliance

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP Place the characteristics under their corresponding types of antenna used in Wireless LAN (WLAN)? “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www. 4

CWNA PW0-070: Practice Exam A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11

Two RF signals, shown below, are operating at the same frequency of 2.142 MHz, but with different amplitudes. Which of the following statements is true about these two signals?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www. 6 CWNA PW0-070: Practice Exam

A. The signal witha higher amplitude (Signal A) has less power than the signal with a lower amplitude (Signal B).

B. Both signals have the same power.

C. The power of the two signals depends on the medium through which they are propagating.

D. The signal witha higher amplitude (Signal A) has more power than the signal with a lower amplitude (Signal B).

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Which of the following wireless techniques provides the highest data transfer speed?

A. Infrared

B. 802.11b

C. Bluetooth

D. 802.11

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco WLC IP addresses will be returned to a Cisco AP that requests an IP address from this

DHCP pool?

A. 192.168.129.12 and 192.168.129.20

B. 192.168.129.11 and 192.168.129.19

C. 192.168.129.12 and 192.168.129.17

D. 192.168.129.11 and 192.168.129.18

E. none of the above

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 132

Which statement about the Cisco WCS WLAN configuration template is true?

A. A WLAN template can be used to configure SSID settings on an AP.

B. A WLAN template can be used to configure mandatory and supported data rates on a WLC.

C. A WLAN template can be used to configure SSID settings on a WLC.

D. A WLAN template can be used to configure channel and power level options on an AP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49

You are designing a wireless infrastructure for an enterprise customer in the busy international banking district of Tokyo. All the client adapters are fairly modern, so you have turned off 802.11b speeds to reduce the size of your cells. Which channels will you choose to make optimum use of the available spectrum?

A. 1, 5, 9, 13

B. 1, 6, 11

C. 1, 6, 11, 14

D. 1, 4, 7, 11, 14

E. 1, 5, 9

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50

Which three are equivalent forms of the IPv6 address 2011:0000:0000:0000:2010:0000:0000:000F? (Choose three.)

A. 2011:0:0:0:2010:0:0:F

B. 2011::2010::000F

C. 2011:0:0000:0000:2010::000F

D. 2011::2010:0:0:F

E. 2011::201:0000:0000:000F

F. 2011::201:0010:0010:000F

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 66

You are configuring a TACACS server and the security team asks you for details about this protocol. Which three statements about the TACACS protocol are true? (Choose three.)

A. It is TCP based.

B. It is UDP based.

C. It uses port 49 by default.

D. It uses port 59 by default.

E. The username is sent in cleartext.

F. The username is encrypted.

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 171

Refer to the exhibit.

With five devices connected to an AP radio, this Cisco WCS alarm was activated. Which action will prevent

this alarm from appearing again when 10 devices connect to the AP radio?

A. Within Cisco WCS, modify the Max client event parameters to trigger an alarm when 11 or more clients associate to the radio.

B. Within Cisco WCS, create an RRM template to modify the Max clients setting and apply it to all controllers.

C. Within Cisco WCS, enable spectrum load balancing for this AP.

D. Within Cisco WCS, modify the alarm settings to activate on 11 or more clients.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?

A. LRU

B. HWM

C. LWM

D. MRU

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?

A. Source devices must be healthy

B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices

C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices

D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?

A. RecoverPoint

B. NetWorker

C. Avamar

D. Data Domain

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?

A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume

B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration

C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine

D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?

A. Integrity

B. Availability

C. Security

D. Performance

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

What is a characteristic of unified storage?

A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface

B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface

C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution

D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?

A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications

B. Eliminates consumer’s IT operational expenditure

C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources

D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

What is a key benefit of virtualization?

A. Improved resource utilization

B. Improved performance

C. Enhanced interoperability

D. Unlimited resource scaling

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?

A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated

B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM

C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot

D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?

A. Description Field

B. Message ID

C. Sequence Number

D. Token Number

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Workload Management can submit jobs to:

A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed

B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload Manager

C. Any Unicenter Server

D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload Agent

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources. They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?

A. Common Object Repository

B. Real World Interface

C. WorldView Application Programming Interface

D. WorldView Gateway

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?

A. Nodeview

B. Class Wizard

C. DSM Wizard

D. Object View

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?

A. Common Object Repository

B. Distributed Services Bus

C. Distributed State Machine

D. Finite State Machine

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?

A. Agent components

B. DSM components

C. Microsoft SQL Client

D. Microsoft SQL Server

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)

A. Agent Technology Layer

B. Application Management Layer

C. Manager Layer

D. Internet Control Layer

E. Network Management Layer

F. WorldView Layer

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 9

When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?

A. Banyan VINES

B. Named Pipe only

C. NWLink IPX/SPX

D. TCP/IP Sockets

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)

A. CPU

B. CPUTNG

C. POSTCPU

D. PRECPU

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12

What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?

A. Standard

B. Default

C. MAIN

D. BASE

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 2

What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?

A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.

B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is shutdown and restarted. “Certification Depends on Only One Thing” – www.actualanswers.com 2 IBM 000-221 Exam

C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.

D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware contains major fixes to the service processor.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.

How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?

A. Use the command ‘Isdev -I ent0′ on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.

B. Use the command ‘Isattr-EI ent0′ on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.

C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.

D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the adapter is using.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?

A. Run chattr -E -I sys0-a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR

B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect ‘Enable RBAC Reboot the system

C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment

D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the inconsistent fileset levels were installed?

A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.

B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.

C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.

D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the lpp_source.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?

A. The network and disk must be virtual.

B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.

C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.

D. The client partition must be set up as a ‘Mover Service Partition’.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a system with 6 physical volumes?

A. RAID0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

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QUESTION 8 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?

A. varyonvg -n datavg

B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg

C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2

D. chvg -Qn datavg

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

An administrator needs to list/query the security attributes for the WPAR syswpar1. Which command will do this?

A. Issecattr-W syswpar1

B. Issecconf-w syswpar1

C. Isattr-s syswpar1

D. Iswpar-S syswpar1

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

Which of the following is an AIX 7 Cluster Aware feature?

A. Cluster application load balancing

B. Cluster shared volume groups on the shared disk “Certification Depends on Only One Thing” – www.actualanswers.com 6 IBM 000-221 Exam

C. Cluster IP addresses on the shared resource

D. Cluster configurations on the cluster repository disk

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

How can an administrator enable the Workload Partitions Manager feature after AIX 7 has been installed with the default options?

A. Change AIX License using chlicense -I command

B. Change AIX edition using chedition -e command

C. Change WPAR License using chwpar -I command

D. Change WPAR edition using chwpar-e command

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 2

What is a wide-area network (WAN)?

A. A network that is restricted to a single building, a group of buildings, or even a single room

B. A network that connects client devices wirelessly using radio waves

C. A network that crosses metropolitan, regional or national boundaries

D. A network that encompasses an entire city or metropolitan area and connects multiple local-area networks (LANs)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which IP telephony component provides call processing, such as signaling that in a traditional voice network is provided by switching equipment, such as a PBX?

A. Voice gateways, such as the Cisco VG248 analog phone gateway

B. Call-management hardware and software, such as Cisco Call Manager

C. Client-based software, such as Cisco SoftPhone

D. Advanced call-handling software, such as Cisco Unity

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet to

the company extranet.

Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?

A. IP telephony

B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

C. Content Networking

D. Wireless network

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

What does a router do?

A. Reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

B. Stores data on network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

C. Routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)

D. Broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and wide-area network (WAN)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Which wireless local-area network (WLAN) device is often used to make wireless connections between buildings or campuses?

A. Access Point

B. Bridge

C. Router

D. Client Adapter

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communications system reside?

A. A single, joined voice, video and data network

B. Voice networks only

C. Wireless networks only

D. Data networks only

E. Independent voice, video and data networks

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which Cisco router series is the premier high-end routing platform for service-provider backbone and edge applications that support DS3 for Frame Relay ?

A. 7600 Series

B. 12000 Series

C. 10000 Series

D. 15000 Series

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which Internet Protocol (IP) telephony element is best categorized as a voice application component?

A. Private branch exchange (PBX)

B. Advanced audio conferencing software

C. IP telephone

D. Voice Gateway

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

Which network security strategy element refers to implementing barriers that serve as both physical and virtual protection against possible threats?

A. test the system

B. secure the network

C. develop security policy

D. monitor and respond

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

Which component should you use to reduce collision issues on a large LAN?

A. switch

B. printer

C. host

D. repeater

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 2

Project Server automatically creates four site groups within the project workspace. Which one of the following is NOT a site group that is created automatically?

A. Readers

B. Web administrators

C. Project managers

D. Stakeholders

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

You are the Microsoft Project Server administrator for your organization and you need to perform a restore to the PSGHT SQL database. You have been using the differential model so you will need to restore from multiple media. What clause will you need to include in your RESTORE DATABASE statement to restore the full database backup that comes before the differential backup to restore your SQL database?

A. NORECOVERY

B. RESTORE

C. RECOVERY

D. RESTORE_DIFF

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. You would like to create a filter in order to view all the jobs submitted to the queue within the last seven days. How will you accomplish the task?

A. This task is possible; you should use the filter “All jobs in the past week” through Project Web Access and the My Queued Jobs page.

B. This task is not possible. Queue entries are processed and purged from the queue without a history of the action.

C. This task is possible; the Project Administrator, however, will need to create the view for the project manager and then assign the appropriate permission.

D. This task is somewhat possible; queued jobs that fail are recorded, but all successful queued jobs are purged from the queue history.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

You would like to change the Site Theme of your project workspace. How can you change the Site Theme?

A. Choose Site Actions, and then select Site Settings.

B. Choose Site Settings, and then select Customize.

C. Choose Site Customization, and then select Site Settings.

D. Choose Site Details, and then select Options.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

You work as a project manager for company.com Inc. You need to develop a solution so that the project manager, executives, and team members can review and discuss the risks of the company’s project online. Which of the following is the most appropriate solution for the above task?

A. Create a new workspace called Risk, and assign permissions to the project manager, executives, and team members.

B. Use the existing project workspace but create an additional Web Part for the risk of the JHG Project.

C. Create a new workspace, and assign the appropriate permissions to the project manager, executives, and team members.

D. Use the existing Risk link in the project workspace that is already created using Microsoft Project Server.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Gary is the Microsoft Project Server administrator for his company, and is configuring a restore method for his SQL Server. Gary would like to use a command to ensure that the backup operation verifies each page for checksum and torn page and for the entire backup. What command should Gary use?

A. STOP_ON_ERROR

B. NO_CHECKSUM

C. CHECKSUM

D. CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. You have been assigned the task to manage a project in order to streamline business processes. You need to prepare a resource estimate required to complete the project in six months or less. The executives want to know how many resources you will need and the skill sets each resource must possess. You have constructed a task list and linked the tasks to create a schedule. What should you do next to prepare the estimate?

A. You should open the Assign Resources dialog box. For each task in the project, search for resources by Resource Breakdown Structure codes and assign them to tasks.

B. You should create generic resources for each set of skills the project requires and assign generic resources to all the tasks.

C. You should assign specific resources to your project tasks. Then, generate a resource report that specifies the number of resources you need based on their Resource Breakdown Structure codes.

D. For all the resources you create in your Project file, in the Booking Type drop-down list, choose Proposed.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. You along with your team need to level project resources. One of your team members is concerned about which project he should work on first. Which of the following attributes of the projects will determine which project your team should work on first when resource leveling is done?

A. It depends upon the tasks that require the project manager to work on the critical path.

B. It depends upon the project with the nearest defined milestone.

C. It depends upon the project manager’s determination.

D. It depends upon the project with the highest project priority set.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

There are three primary baselines in a project. Which one of the following is NOT a baseline that can be captured in Microsoft Project Server?

A. Schedule

B. Cost

C. Quality

D. Scope

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. The executive team has asked you to estimate the labor costs for your project. How will you estimate the labor costs without assigning specific people to the tasks?

A. You should assign budget resources with corresponding skill sets and costs to tasks.

B. You should create work resources that will act as placeholders, set their cost rates to an average amount for the corresponding skill set, and assign the work resources to tasks.

C. You should assign generic resources with corresponding skill sets and costs to tasks.

D. You should assign costs resources to tasks.

Correct Answer: C

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