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QUESTION 1

The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)

A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module

B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.

C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.

D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module

E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric

F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails

G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 3

What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?

A. 4 groups

B. 13 groups

C. 24 groups

D. 64 groups

E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)

A. Has eight output queues per port

B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization

C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization

D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization

E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch

F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5

Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)

A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.

B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive

C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules

D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group

E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7

Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)

A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface

B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain

C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain

D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8

What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?

A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.

B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions

C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network

D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)

A. Multilayer traffic prioritization

B. Multiple priority queues per port

C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)

D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.

E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login

F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11

Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)

A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects

B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial

C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800

D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13

Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)

A. Ensure continuous network availability

B. Supports enhanced network performance

C. Can be created using any IP-based switch

D. Create a path for future-proofing the network

E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 2

How does the NBX administrator assign a new user to a Hunt Group?

A. Select Dial Plan / Table and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

B. Select Dial Plan / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

C. Select Operations/ Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

D. Select User Configuration / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which four are features of the SuperStack 3 NBX system? (Choose four.)

A. Has an two integrated, redundant 10/100 Mbps Ethernet port for LAN connectivity

B. Supports up to 200 devices, including up to 100 central office lines

C. Redundancy options include dual power supplies and disk mirroring

D. Supports up to 1500 devices, including up to 720 central office lines

E. System scales to 12 auto-attendant voice messaging ports and 80 hour of voice-mail storage

F. Uses the same Network Control Processor (NCP) card as the NBX 100 Communications System

G. Uses many of the same interface cards, for example, Analog Line and Analog Terminal Cards, as the NBX 100 Communications System

Correct Answer: ACDG

QUESTION 6

Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)

A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications

B. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)

C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications

D. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license

E. With an NBX Telephony system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/ from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example., VPN, T1, E1, Frame and Relay

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7

Which two are required to use standards based 802.1p voice prioritization for an NBX phone system? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN tagging must be turned on

B. Requires NBX 3XXX model phones

C. Network switches must support IEEE 802.1p

D. NBX phone must be attached to the network through a PC that supports VLAN tagging

E. SuperStack 3 NBX Network Telephony System and the NBX 100 Communication System do not support packet prioritization

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8

How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?

A. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication

B. NBX phones, using VLAN-tagged frames, automatically set the priority level to 6

C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs

D. NBX phone place audio traffic in a priority queue, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

The NBX phones support IEEE 802.1p/q for voice prioritization across the WAN.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which three are features/benefits of using Silent Suppression on your NBX Telephony System? (Choose three.)

A. On average, provides a 42% reduction in voice bandwidth utilization

B. Can be enabled/disabled for the entire system or for individual phones

C. Compresses all voice traffic, reducing packet size and network congestion

D. Eliminates additional voice packets between phones when there is a conversation

E. Enabled devices send small packets with a silence indication when it detects silence in the conversation

F. Eliminates the need for phones to send “keep alive” packets every 5 seconds, as the phones create a connection-oriented network session

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11

Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communications System? (Choose three.)

A. Requires the Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown

B. Supports hot-swap power supply, Network Call Processor and disk drive

C. Provides 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity

D. Is a combination of two chassis – the Network Call Processor and the interface chassis

E. Has 6-useable card slots with the top slot designated for the Network Call Processor Card

F. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are installed on a LAN

Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 13

Which four are hardware redundancy features of the SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony System? (Choose four.)

A. Disk mirroring on the NBX V5000 Call Processor

B. Dual NCP support in the NBX V5000 Call Processor

C. Dual-homing support for T1/E1 Digital Line Card ports

D. External Redundant Power Supply (RPS) for NBX V5000 Chassis

E. Redundant 10/100 Mbps Ethernet uplink ports for LAN connectivity

F. NBX V5000 Chassis internal backup power supply with load sharing

G. NBX V5000 Call Processor internal backup power supply with load sharing

Correct Answer: ADEG

QUESTION 14

Which two NBX Phones support the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard? (Choose two.)

A. NBX 1102 Business Phone

B. NBX 2102PE Business Phone

C. NBX 2102-IR Business Phone

D. NBX 3102 Business Phone

E. NBX 2102 Business Phone

Correct Answer: BD

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The most useful 4A0-107 Alcatel-Lucent certification practice questions

QUESTION 1

True of False: A proper end-to-end QoS solution is becoming more of an issue even as more bandwidth is being made available to today’s bandwidth-intensive, interactive multimedia applications.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS?

A. Delay, jitter, packet loss

B. Latency, FIFO, WRED

C. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss

D. SNR, radial CODEC inversion, latency

E. Inverse Queue Depletion, delay, packet loss

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements are true regarding the DSCP bits? Choose 3 answers.

A. The precedence level bits define 4 Assured Forwarding Classes

B. The three least significant bits of the DSCP bits specify the drop probability

C. The 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP

D. To convert DSCP to IP Precedence the three most significant bits are matched

E. DSCP provides for 64 precedence levels with 3 drop probabilities

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7

The IOM is responsible for which of the tasks listed below? Choose 3 answers.

A. Local processing of critical control plane functions

B. IPSec VPN hardware accelerated encryption

C. Queuing, scheduling, and buffer management

D. IP/MPLS/MAC forwarding lookup

E. Layer 2 / Layer 3 encapsulation

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8

Which of the following statement is true with regards to Q-in-Q on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

A. Q-in-Q defines a mechanism for encapsulating queued DSCP traffic at the provider edge

B. Q-in-Q is a new protocol thatsupercedes 802.1p priority-bit mapping in a QoS-aware network

C. The use of either the inner or outer 802.1p bits in the 802.1q frames forQoS classification can be configured on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR

D. Q-in-Q is a protocol which re-encapsulates trunked p-bits in an outer label that is mapped into the EXP bits in an MPLS backbone

E. none of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Which of the following are not categories of forwarding classes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? Choose 3 answers.

A. Real-time

B. Assured

C. Non-conforming

D. High Priority

E. Expedited

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10

Which of the following are Trusted boundaries by default? Choose 2 answers.

A. An IES SAP

B. A VPLS SAP

C. A network port

D. A VPRN SAP

E. An access port

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11

True of False. There is a default network policy applied to all router interfaces?

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP. Choose 3 answers?

A. Part of the layer 3 header

B. A 6-bit field of which the first 3 bits indicate the IP Precedence bits

C. Specifies 8 different priorities

D. Specifies 3 precedence levels

E. Part of the layer 2 header

F. Specifies 64 different per hop behaviors

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 13

Which of the following QoS policies does not have a default policy?

A. Scheduler policies

B. Service ingress

C. Service egress

D. Network queue

E. Network

F. Slope

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. You want to provide identity management between a Human Resources application and Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). You need to ensure that the synchronization service instance can be returned if the primary server fails. What should you implement?

A. A cluster server

B. A warm-standby server

C. A software load-balance server

D. A hardware load-balance appliance

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network to provide an identity management solution between an enterprise resource planning (ERP) application and Active Directory. The solution will contain the following FIM services: FIM Service FIM Service database FIM Synchronization Service FIM Synchronization Service database. You need to ensure that all FIM services support fault tolerance. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Deploy FIM Service in a network load-balanced configuration.

B. Deploy a FIM Service instance on an active server and a second FIM service instance on a standby server.

C. Deploy the FIM Synchronization Service database and FIM Service database in a failover cluster configuration.

D. Deploy the FIM Synchronization Service database and FIM Service database in a network load-balanced configuration.

E. Deploy a FIM Synchronization Service instance on an active physical server and a second FIM Synchronization Service instance on a standby physical server.

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3

.

You deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) in your company network to synchronize user accounts between Active Directory and an HR application. End users use the FIM Self-Service Portal to reset passwords and manage groups. You use a two-tiered architecture according to the following table.

Server Roles ?FIM Synchronization database (dedicated disk) FIM Service database (dedicated disk) FIM Synchronization Service FIM One back-end server Service (dedicated to FIM Synchronization Service access) FIM Portal Two load-balanced ?FIM Service FIM Self-Service Portal front-end servers Currently, the number of users and groups has doubled. You experience delays in performance of the Active Directory Management Agent (AD MA). You need to improve the performance of the MA . What should you do?

A. Configure the AD MA to run as a different service account.

B. Add an additional front-end server to the two load-balanced front-end servers.

C. Split the FIM Synchronization Service, and then install it on a new separate physical server.

D. Split the FIM Portal from the back end, and then install it on a new separate physical server.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. You need to select a FIM topology that meets the following requirements: Removes single points of failure. Separates end-user operations from administrative data synchronization. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Create two service partitions.

B. Create four service partitions.

C. Create two instances of the FIM Service by using two FIM Service Names.

D. Create four instances of the FIM Service by using two FIM Service Names.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5

.

You are deploying Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) to your company network. End users will use the password self-service, user profile management, and group management from the FIM Portal. You use a separate account to install all FIM software on a server allocated for FIM installation. You need to complete the portal installation of FIM services. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Ensure that delegation is disabled for the FIM service account.

B. Ensure that delegation is disabled for the SharePointService account.

C. Ensure that the FIM installation account has SQL sysadmin rights.

D. Ensure that the FIM Installation account has SharePoint administrator permissions.

E. Configure the SharePoint Application Pool account to use the Configurable service account.

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6

.

You administer a Forefront Identity Management (FIM) 2010 server in your company network. You need to be able to synchronize user accounts between Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and third-party directory services by using the FIM Portal. What should you do?

A. Add the FIM Synchronization Service (FIMSynchronizationService) account to the FIMSyncAdmins group.

B. Add the FIM Service (FIMService) account to the FIMSyncAdmins group.

C. Change the FIM Service (FIMService) account configuration to logon as local system account.

D. Change the FIM Synchronization Service (FIMSynchronizationService) account configuration to logon as local system account.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

.

You deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. You need to activate Kerberos authentication for the FIM Portal. What should you do?

A. Modify the ResourceManagementClient section of the web.config file.

B. From the Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager console, change Windows Authentication to Enable Kernel-mode authentication.

C. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, on the Edit Authentication page, clear Integrated Windows Authentication.

D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, on the Edit Authentication page, change Authentication Type to Web Single sign on.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

.

You are planning to deploy Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010 in your company network. Which server platform should you install before the FIM Portal?

A. Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0

B. Microsoft SharePoint Foundation 2010

C. Microsoft SharePoint Server 2010

D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

.

Your company network contains Microsoft Identity Lifecycle Manager (ILM) 2007 and Microsoft SQL Server 2008. ILM is configured to use 32-bit rules extensions. You upgrade ILM 2007 to Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010. You need to recompile the rules extensions. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Configure the references to point to a custom .dll file.

B. Configure the references to point to the FIM 2010 libraries.

C. Copy the extensions to the server that runs FIM 2010.

D. Copy the extensions to a 64-bit version of SQL Server 2008.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

.

Drag and Drop

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QUESTION 6

Which network technology allows for the monitoring of active communication networks to diagnose problems and gather statistics for network administration?

A. network security

B. content networking

C. network management

D. campus local-area networking

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Building long-term relationships with customers is the goal of which Cisco activity?

A. improvements in Cisco IOS

B. customer satisfaction surveys

C. investment in search and development

D. acquisition of leading technology companies

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which strategy protects network resources and services from unauthorized actions?

A. network security

B. network management

C. collaborative networking

D. content storage networking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

Which Cisco series is an affordable wireless local-area network (WLAN) solution that is complaint with 802.11b standards and upgradeable to 802.11g standards?

A. Aironet 350 Series

B. Aironet 550 Series

C. Aironet 1100 Series

D. Aironet 1200 Series

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21

SMARTnet and SMARTnet Onsite provide which two services? (CHOOSE TWO)

A. updates to all Cisco software

B. support for Cisco IOS software

C. registered access to Cisco com.

D. Support for application softwar such as Cisco CallManager

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 24

Which interoperability standard provides a maximum speed on a woreless local-area network (WLAN) of 11 megabits per second?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. service set identifier (SSID)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27

Which device is installed in user devices and makes wireless connections between them and a network?

A. router

B. bridge

C. access point

D. client adapter

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28

Certkiller .com with 100 employees predicts that its employee number will triple in the next six month. It is currently using hubs to connect employee computers. Which solution should an account manager offer that would best meet upcoming company needs?

A. storage network

B. optical network

C. switched network

D. Internet Protocol (IP) telephoney

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32

A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet to

the company extranet.

Which Cisco solution best meets this business need?

A. IP telephony

B. Wireless network

C. Content networking

D. Virtual Private Networking

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34

Which is an opportunity indicator for a CiscoWorks network LAN Management Solution (LMS)?

A. a global enterprise deploying a converged network of voice, video, and data

B. a small insurance company hoping to cut toll-call costs to foreign branch offices.

C. An Internet service provider (ISP) needing to provide better quality of service to its customers.

D. A growing enterprise wanting to automate and simply diagnosing network problems at branch offices.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?

A. They are changed with the password utility.

B. They must be changed once a month.

C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.

D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the Shadow Password Suite?

A. vi /etc/shadow

B. sudo -c “vi /etc/shadow”

C. su -c “vi /etc/shadow”

D. visu vi /etc/passwd

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment variables that apply to all users?

A. /etc/skel

B. rc.sysinit

C. /etc/profile

D. /etc/bashrc

E. rc.local

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks through various network services?

A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.

B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.

C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.

D. Uninstall unneeded network services.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?

A. It is reserved.

B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.

C. It is designated for multicast transmission.

D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)

A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.

B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.

C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network link runs the risk of password interception.

D. Users may be able to abuse a program’s features, thus doing more damage than would otherwise be possible.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11

Which statement describes the cron daemon?

A. Manages scheduling of routine system tasks

B. Manages all incoming connections and spawns off child processes

C. Is responsible for file sharing across a network

D. Keeps track of system messages and errors

E. Manages the printing subsystem

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

You’re using a communications protocol that cannot handle encrypted passwords. You need to disable the Shadow Password Suite. Which of the following pairs of commands restores the original clear-text passwords that you had encrypted into the /etc/shadow and /etc/gshadow files?

A. grpunconv; passunconv

B. grpunconv; pwunconv

C. gconv; passunconv

D. gconv; pwunconv

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

What would the following command do? cat MyFile | sort | tee | lpr

A. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order and display the contents of MyFile in sorted order.

B. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order and display the contents of MyFile.

C. It would not work because it contains too many pipes.

D. Print the contents of MyFile in alphabetical order.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

When you look through the /var/log directory you see a new file, httpd.crit. Assume that it is a legitimate file, created for legitimate reasons. Which of the following statements is the best possible description of this file?

A. It contains error messages related to access to your Apache Web server.

B. It includes critical notices related to access through your router.

C. It contains critical information related to your Web access.

D. It includes critical messages about the actions taken by your Apache Web server.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 2

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network contains 500 Windows XP

Professional computers. The information security department releases a new security template named

NewSec.inf.

You import NewSec.inf into a security database named NewSec.sdb. You analyze the result, and you

review the changes that the template makes.

You examine the security policies that are defined in NewSec.inf. You discover that the settings in

NewSec.inf have not been implemented on your computer.

You need to ensure that the settings in NewSec.inf overwrite the settings in your computer’s local security

policy. What are two possible ways to achieve this goaI? (Each correct answer presents a complete

solution. Choose two.)

A. Run the Secedit /configure /db C:\NewSec.sdb command.

B. Run the Secedit /refreshpolicy machine_policy command.

C. Copy NewSec.inf to the C:\Windows\Inf folder.

D. Copy NewSec.sdb to the C:\Windows\System32\Microsoft\Protect folder.

E. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to open NewSec.sdb and then to perform a Configure operation.

F. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis console to export NewSec.sdb to the Defltwk.inf security template.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

You are the administrator of 10 Windows XP Professional computers for your company. The computers

are members of a Windows 2000 domain.

Because the computers are used in a public area in the cafeteria, you audit all security events on the

computers.

A user named Marc reports that he was using one of the Windows XP Professional computers when the

computer suddenly shut down with a STOP error. When the computer restarted, Marc attempted to log on

by using the same user name and password that he used before. Marc received the following error

message: “Your account is configured to prevent you from using this computer. PIease try another

computer.” Marc states that he did not do anything to cause the STOP error to occur.

You want to ensure that Marc can use this computer. What should you do?

A. On the computer, save and clear the security log, set the CrashOnAuditFail setting to 1, and restart the computer.

B. On the computer, modify the local audit policy so that system events are not audited, set the CrashOnCtrIScroll setting to 1, and restart the computer.

C. In the domain, modify Marc’s Logon Workstations list to include the name of the computer.

D. In the domain, modify Marc’s account properties to unlock the account.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

You are a help desk technician for your company. Your company’s network includes an Active Directory domain and Windows XP Professional computers that are configured as members of the domain.

Company policy prohibits users from accessing their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. However, users report that they can log on to their computers, even though a network administrator has told them that a domain controller is not available.

As a test, you log off of your computer and disconnect it from the network. You discover that you can log on by using your domain user account.

You need to ensure that users cannot access their computers unless they are authenticated by a domain controller. How should you configure the local computer policy on these computers?

A. Enable the Require domain controller to unlock policy.

B. Set the Number of previous logons to cache policy to 0.

C. Remove all user and group accounts from the Log on locally user right.

D. Remove all user and group accounts from the Access this computer from the network user right.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

You are a help desk technician for your company. AII users have Windows XP Professional computers.

Ten users run a custom application named Finance on their computers. Finance stores user passwords in

a file named Passwords.ini.

By default, the Passwords.ini file is stored in a folder named C:\Winnt\App1. The location and name of the

file can be changed by an administrator.

Each Passwords.ini file is unique. Each computer contains a single logical drive, which is drive C and is

formatted as NTFS.

In order to comply with a new company security policy, you need to ensure that the Passwords.ini files are

encrypted. What should you do?

A. In the properties of the C:\Winnt\App1 folder, use Windows Explorer to select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box.

B. Ask a network administrator to share a new encrypted folder named PassFiles on a network server and to permit users to read the files contained within the folder. Copy the Passwords.ini file from each computer into the PassFiles folder. On each computer, configure Finance to use the Passwords.ini file

in the PassFiles folder.

C. Create a folder named C:\Files. Copy the Passwords.ini file to the C:\Files folder. In the properties of the C:\Files folder, select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box. Configure Finance to use the C:\Files\Passwords.ini file.

D. Create a folder named C:\Files. Move the Passwords.ini file to the C:\Files folder. Instruct the user of each computer to open the properties of the C:\Files folder and select the option to encrypt the contents of the folder. Accept the default settings on the Confirm Attributes Changes dialog box. Configure Finance to use the C:\Files\Passwords.ini file.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional portable computer. When you are traveling, you often dial in to the internet to connect to your company network.

Your company has a policy that prohibits Web sites that do not have a Platform for Privacy Preferences (P3P) privacy policy from saving cookies on employees’ computers. Web sites that do have a P3P policy are allowed to save cookies. You configure internet Explorer to comply with company policy.

After you make this configuration change, you receive a Privacy dialog box when you visit Web sites that do not comply with company policy. The Privacy dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X)button.)

However, you notice that these Web sites still welcome you based on personalized information. The Restricted Web sites list in the privacy report lists blocked cookies for these Web sites.

You want to ensure that Web sites that do not comply with your company policy cannot track your access to their Web sites. What should you do?

A. Change the Privacy setting to High.

B. Change the Advanced Privacy setting to block cookies for first-party and third-party cookies.

C. Change the Temporary internet Files setting to check for newer versions of stored pages every time you start internet Explorer.

D. Delete existing cookies that you received from the noncompliant Web sites.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You are a help desk technician for your company. AII users have Windows XP Professional computers.

A user named Richard reports that he cannot access www.southridgevideo.com, an internet Web site, by using internet Explorer. Whenever Richard types http://www.southridgevideo.com into the internet Explorer address bar, he receives the following error message: “Your security settings prohibit the display of unsigned ActiveX Controls.”

According to company policy, users should download unsigned ActiveX controls only from internet Web sites that have been approved by the company’s information security department.

You verify that www.southridgevideo.com is listed as an approved Web site. On Richard’s computer, you also verify that internet Explorer is configured with the default settings.

You need to ensure that Richard can access www.southridgevideo.com without receiving an error message. You also want to comply with company policy.

You need to configure Richard’s computer. First, you open the Security properties for internet Explorer on Richard’s computer.

Which two actions should you perform next? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Add www.southridgevideo.com to the Trusted Sites list.

B. Remove www.southridgevideo.com from the Restricted Sites list.

C. In the internet zone settings, enable the Allow unsigned ActiveX controls option.

D. Open the Local intranet Sites dialog box and clear the Include all network paths check box.

E. Open the Trusted Sites dialog box and clear the Require server verification for all sites in this zone check box.

F. Open the Intranet Sites dialog box. In Advanced properties, add www.southridgevideo.com to the list of Web sites.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8

You are the administrator of the Windows XP Professional portable computers that are used by your company’s sales representatives. The computers are members of a Windows 2000 domain. A Windows 2000 Server computer named Server1 contains the sales data used by the sales representatives in a shared folder named Data.

When sales representatives travel, they use the Offline Files feature to access the files in the \\Server1 \Data shared folder. You want to ensure that the offline files on the portable computers are not accessible by unauthorized persons, in the event that a portable computer is lost.

What should you do?

A. Instruct the sales representatives to configure the permissions on the offline files on their portable computers to allow access for only their user accounts.

B. On Server1, configure the permissions on all files in the Data shared folder to allow access for only the sales representatives.

C. Use a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Encrypt the Offline Files cache option for the portable computers.

D. On the portable computers, enable encryption of the %systemroot%\CSC folder. Apply this setting to the folder and files in the CSC folder.

E. On Server1, encrypt all files in the Data shared folder. Add all sales representatives to the encryption details.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII client computers currently run Windows 2000 Professional. The client computers have a typical disk configuration, as shown in the following table.

You are in the process of deploying new Windows XP Professional computers to users in the graphics department. The new computers currently have one hard disk. Each hard disk is configured as a dynamic disk, and it contains the system and boot volume. To maintain user data, you are moving the physical hard disks from the users’ original computers to the new computers.

Laura is a user in the graphics department. You move disk 1 from Laura’s original computer to her new computer. You do not move disk 0 to the new computer. When you run the Disk Management console on the new computer, the disk that you moved from Laura’s original computer appears with the status of Foreign. When you attempt to run the Import Foreign Disks utility, the Foreign Disk Volumes dialog box is displayed, as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

When you click the OK button, the disk is imported. However, the status of the disk changes to Failed, and you cannot access data that is stored on the disk.

You need to ensure that Laura can access the data that is stored on the hard disk that you moved to the new computer. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Run the Import Foreign Disks utility in the Disk Management console.

B. Move disk 0 from Laura’s original computer to the new computer. Delete and re-create the spanned volume.

C. Convert the moved hard disk to a dynamic disk. Delete the spanned volume and create a simple volume.

D. Run the Ftonline e: command on the new computer. Back up the data that is on drive E. Delete and re-create the spanned volume, and restore the data.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You are the desktop administrator for your company. AII employees have Windows XP Professional portable computers.

A sales representative named Richard has a local user account on his computer. Richard is issued a portable USB print device. You log on to his computer and disable the restrictions on loading unsigned drivers. AII other local computer policies are configured with the default settings.

You restart Richard’s computer. Then Richard connects the USB print device, but the printer does not appear in the Printers folder, and Richard cannot print any documents.

You need to ensure that Richard can install the printer and print successfully. What should you do?

A. Add Richard to the local Print Operators group on his computer.

B. Add the /fastdetect switch in the Boot.ini file on Richard’s computer.

C. Disable the Prevent users from installing printer drivers Local security policy setting.

D. Modify the Driver Signing Options, selecting the Make this action the system default check box.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network consists of a single Active Directory domain. AII client computers run Windows XP ProfessionaI.

Employees in the sales department use portable computers. AII portable computers use 802.11b wireless LAN PC adapters and a wireless access point to connect to the network. The wireless access point is connected to the company network by means of a wireless bridge. The wireless LAN uses 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

A user in the sales department returns from a business trip and reports that she cannot connect to the company network. You run the configuration utility for the wireless LAN adapter. The status of the wireless network connection is shown as Not Linked. When you attempt to scan for the network, a connection cannot be made. The configuration for the LAN adapter and the wireless network connection is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit (X) button.)

You need to ensure that the user can connect to the network. What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Clear the This is a computer-to-computer (ad hoc) network check box.

B. Select the Network Authentication (Shared mode) check box.

C. Clear the The key is provided for me automatically check box. Type the WEP network key information for the wireless LAN.

D. Clear the The key is provided for me automatically check box. Configure the Key index option to 1.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

.Which two documents should be part of the Staging Plan Development? (Choose two.)

A. Bill Of Materials

B. Staging Project Plan

C. Site Requirements Specification

D. Low-Level Design Template

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2

.Which task is conducted during execution of a system acceptance test plan?

A. Present and discuss systems acceptance test results with the customer

B. Verify that all participants are ready

C. Verify that escalation path is in place to help manage and mitigate problems with test cases

D. Record and review results with key stakeholders and business owners

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

.What should technical requirements and design goals be combined to create?

A. Service Level Criteria

B. Low-Level Design

C. Systems Acceptance Test Plan

D. Detailed Design Validation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

.Which three activities within the plan phase are performed when managing a project on time and within budget, which includes communication, resource management and change control? (Choose three.)

A. Project Control and Monitoring

B. Develop customer requirements change control plan

C. Develop Technology infrastructure and operational requirements plan

D. Conduct Project Kickoff Workshops

E. Develop a Project Management Plan

F. Identify and install collaborative tools provide training for those tools

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7

.What are two typical activities that are conducted as part of Security Assessment? (Choose two.)

A. Create a performance baseline for Security Assessment

B. Assess network infrastructure software and configuration

C. Categorize security incidents

D. Perform intrusion audits

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8

.Which service component within the plan phase prescribes a set of activities and tasks to assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify their ability to support the proposed routing and switching solution for a customer?

A. Network Readiness Assessment

B. Operations Readiness Assessment

C. Site Readiness Assessment

D. Security Vulnerability Assessment

E. Development Project Management

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

.Which three activities within the plan phase are performed when assessing network vulnerabilities and identifying steps needed to address security threats and attacks? (Choose three.)

A. Identify, Analyze and Document Existing Network Vulenrabilities

B. Document the existing Network Environment

C. Produce Network Security Specifications and Requirements

D. Assess Current Network Infrastructure and Network Security Procedures

E. Produce Security Vulnerability Report

F. Document the Network Vulnerabilities and Determine the level of Criticality for remediation

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 10

.In the Deployment Project Management Service component within the plan phase, which activity is associated with the task of proposing and gaining agreement on a governance model that will be used to communicate to key stakeholders and business owners?

A. Develop a project management plan

B. Produce a master project plan.

C. Develop the work breakdown structure

D. Conduct Project kickoff workshops

E. Perform project control and monitoring

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

.Which three activities are conducted as part of resource management plan development? (Choose three.)

A. Perform business Readiness

B. Perform needs analysis

C. Perform Learner Analysis

D. Perform Context Analysis

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13

.When developing the financial analysis for a routing and switching solution, Which three tasks are performed prior to producing a business case for the customer? (Choose three.)

A. Understand how the customer will justify the investment and ensure that any financial risks are addressed.

B. Finalize the technology infrastructure and operational requirements to help ensure the financial analysis is accurate

C. Perform ROI analysis, which typically cites cost categories, such as cost of the technology or solution, cost of deployment and cost of operations

D. Consider other financial factors associated with capital budgeting, such as how long the solution will be used before costs are recovered, the economic value of the technology investment and return expectations on the technology investment

E. Determine the cost-to-benefit ratios of both adopting and not adopting the proposed routing and switching solution

Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 1

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You discover that some mailboxes have been infected by malware. However there are no malware

infection notifications in the Forefront Protection for Exchange Server Console.

You need to immediately check specific mailboxes to see if they are infected by the malware.

What should you do?

A. You should run a Forefront Client Security scan on the client computers.

B. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform a real-time scan of the mailboxes.

C. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform an on-demand scan of the mailboxes.

D. You should install Microsoft Security Essentials on client computers.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

How would you configure FPE to enable spam filtering?

A. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSEScheduledScan cmdlet.

B. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run Set-FseSpamFiltering the cmdlet.

C. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FseSpamContentCheck cmdlet.

D. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSERealtimeScan cmdlet.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

The subject line in each of the emails is: “Free access to our new online tournament!” You note that the sender email address is spoofed to appear to be from a different domain for each email.

How can you block this spam attack in future?

A. You should configure an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. You should configure a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. You should configure a keyword filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. You should configure a sender-domain custom filter in FPE.

E. You should configure a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

Four servers running Windows 2008 Server host the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.

Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

You need to configure email scanning in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010.

How should you configure FPE to scan all emails sent from within the ABC.com domain to email recipients in the ABC.com domain?

A. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

B. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

C. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

D. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

E. You should configure FPE to perform Outbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The network environment is secured using Microsoft Forefront.

A server named ABC-ShPoint1 runs Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010. The SharePoint system is protected by Forefront Protection 2010 for SharePoint (FPSP).

How can you configure the environment to ensure that scanning is performed on all documents that pass through the SharePoint Portal?

A. By logging into the SharePoint portal and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

B. By logging into the SharePoint Central Administration website and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

C. By logging into the Forefront Protection for SharePoint console and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

D. By logging into IIS Manager on the SharePoint Web Server and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

E. By logging into the Security Centre on the SharePoint Database Server and configuring the scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

How can you block a future spam attack based on repeated words in the body of the email?

A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.

E. by configuring a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.

While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.

You examine the email headers and discover a common source IP address.

How can you block a future spam attack based on the IP address?

A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.

B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.

C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.

D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.

E. by configuring a connection filter in FPE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9

You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the

Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

A new scan engine definition is released for Exchange Server 2010.

How can you immediately apply new definitions in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server?

A. by running the Set-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.

B. by running the Start-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.

C. by running the Get-FseSignatureOptions PowerShell cmdlet.

D. by running the Set-FseEngineManagement PowerShell cmdlet.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers. Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You receive reports from users saying that they receive undeliverable mail bounce messages for emails that they did not send. You suspect that the sender field has been forged in the failed messages.

How can you ensure that users do not receive undeliverable mail messages for emails that they did not send?

A. You should configure a sender filter on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.

B. You should configure a backscatter filter on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.

C. You should disable Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages on ABC-Edge1 and ABC- Edge2.

D. You should configure a separate Exchange mailbox to receive all Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional.

A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.

You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.

You want to configure FPE to ensure that any Spyware infected files attached to incoming emails are removed as soon as they are received without deleting the email that the infected file is attached to.

How should you configure the Edge Transport Scan Action?

A. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Clean

B. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Detect.

C. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Delete.

D. You should configure the Scan Action setting by selecting Purge.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

In Cisco’s server-based authentication security scheme, what device is used as the supplicant of the system?

A. client

B. switch

C. Access Point

D. authentication server

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which three settings in a repeater Access Point are necessary to match the root Access Point? (Choose three.)

A. SSID

B. DNS name

C. IP address

D. Radio Channel

E. WEP configuration

F. Role in radio network

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4

The Cisco Aironet 1400 Series Bridge has a full duplex 100 Mbps interface using _____.

A. two 75 Ohm “F” style connectors

B. two 50 Ohm “N” style connectors

C. two 75 Ohm “N” style connectors

D. two 50 Ohm “RP-TNC” style connectors

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

An 802.11b radio utilizes how much of the 2.4 GHz ISM band for transmission?

A. 1 MHz

B. 11 MHz

C. 22 MHz

D. 83.5 MHz

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

How many 2.4 GHz RF channels for DSSS are available in Japan?

A. 2

B. 9

C. 11

D. 13

E. 14

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8

Which program can be used to push profiles out to multiple Cisco Aironet clients?

A. ACU

B. ADU

C. ACM

D. ACAU

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

What can you do to reduce unnecessary traffic from being transmitted across the RF from an Access Point?

A. enable packet filtering

B. enable MAC address authentication

C. set the buffer size in the Access Point to a lower value

D. reduce the cell size by setting the transmit power to a lower setting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What does an Infrastructure AP use when registering with the WDS AP?

A. LEAP

B. PEAP

C. EAP-TLS

D. Static WEP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

What two do Wireless Site Surveys determine? (Choose two.)

A. the size of a cell

B. the throughput of a cell

C. the data rate / range relationship in a cell

D. the number of users that can associate to the AP

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14

What DC voltage is used to power the Access Points through the use of in-line power to the Ethernet port?

A. -5 VDC

B. -9 VDC

C. -12 VDC

D. -48 VDC

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 4

Which three high-level design development activities within the prepare phase are performed to create a design that addresses the business and technical needs of the customer? (Choose three.)

A. analyze business and technology requirements

B. document and categorize business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security

C. identify appropriate products, features, and functionalities that address business and technical requirements and goals

D. produce a documented High-level Design

E. validate the features and functionality of the technology

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9

Select the task most likely to be a part of the staging plan in the design phase.

A. identify staff development requirements

B. create hardware and software configuration checklist

C. deliver detailed design presentation

D. host Implementation Kick-off Meeting

E. determine critical timelines

F. determine Cisco and partner roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

In the implement phase, project planning comprises which of the following tasks?

A. confirm project and milestone dates, as well as project and cutover roles and responsibilities

B. install, configure, and provision core products

C. update and document logical and physical topology maps and serial numbers

D. confirm deployment team, craft project plan, create communication and escalation plans

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?

A. Project Kick-off

B. Implementation Plan

C. Staff Plan Development

D. Implementation Kick-off Meeting

E. Migration Plan

F. Staging Plan

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

Which service component within the prepare phase provides a high-level, conceptual architecture of the proposed system that addresses the business requirements of the customer?

A. Business Requirements Development

B. High-level Technology Strategy

C. High-level Design Development

D. High-level Proof of Concept

E. Technology Strategy Development

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15

What is a possible benefit that a customer may perceive from the system monitoring service component within the operate phase?

A. troubleshoots system by analyzing device config file

B. helps remediate system availability issues by assessing availability trends and proactive alerts

C. helps limit change-related incidents by managing the change process consistently

D. promotes productivity and efficiency in operations processes by enhancing control over the configuration of network devices and providing access to vital configuration data

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18

Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following best describes customer benefits in delivering network readiness assessment services in the plan phase?

A. helps achieve business goals by identifying and aligning Advanced Technologies (AT) to business requirements

B. helps improve Return on Investment (ROI) and speed migration by enabling customer to identify, understand, and plan for necessary infrastructure changes and resource requirements

C. ensures that the customer understands the steps of the implementation

D. helps minimize expensive, time-consuming, network-intrusive redesign by establishing a well-engineered detailed design early in the network lifecycle

E. ensures that the customer has the documentation needed to understand the details of the network that will be used when planning for future changes to the system

F. ensures that the eventual design will meet the business and technology requirements originally put forth by the customer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19

In the plan phase, which of the following is a deployment project management task?

A. review logical, system, and user design

B. analyze current infrastructure and propose new solution

C. obtain and review security procedures

D. collect and verify project management plan requirements

E. develop backup/recovery plan

Explanation

Reference Page 2, Diamond 1, of the “Plan, Deployment Project Management”, Web Training

for Cisco Life Service Express

Not A This is correct in the beginning of the design phase.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23

Which three tasks are performed in the system monitoring service component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)

A. monitor system to identify occurrences of service-level metrics dropping

B. notify interested parties of problems identified, and escalate per-customer requirements

C. verify configuration management database

D. track events and report on system availability, resource capacity, and performance

E. define an operations plan supporting the configuration management database

F. analyze process exceptions

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26

Which two operations technology strategy development activities within the prepare phase are performed recommending people, processes, and tools supporting the operations and management of a system to the customer? (Choose two.)

A. analyze documented business and technology requirements of the customer

B. identify and assess the operational requirements that address and meet the business objectives and goals of the customer

C. define and document the appropriate service-level requirements associated with availability, capacity, and security that correlate with the technology service delivery goals

D. examine and evaluate existing operations and network management process flows and existing operations and network management designs

E. define the requirements for monitoring service-level measurements

Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

You create a host group named HostGroup1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HostGroup1.

You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HostGroup1 by using VMM.

An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HostGroup1.

You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HostGroup1.

What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.

B. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.

C. Modify the properties of HostGroup1.

D. Modify the properties of the baseline.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is

managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

You create a host group named HG1. You move Several Hyper-V hosts to HG1.

You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HG1 by using VMM.

An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HG1.

You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HG1.

What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) server.

B. Copy the Virtual Machine template to an alternate location.

C. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.

D. Modify the properties of HG1.

E. Modify the properties of the baseline.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manager (VMM) infrastructure. THe infrastructure contains several Hyper-V hosts.

You configure VMM to use an update server to synchronize the updates by using a Windows Server

Update Service (WSUS) server.

You attempt to verify complaince with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as

shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts.

What should you modify?

Exhibit:

A. the update classifications of the update server

B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline

C. the default configuration provider

D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts.

You configure VMM to use an update server to synchronize the updates by using a Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) server named WSUS1.

You attempt to verify complaince with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts.

What should you modify?

Exhibit:

A. the update classifications of the update server

B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline

C. the default configuration provider

D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Your comapny has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements:

Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console.

Store information about Windows update installation in Configuration Manager reports.

What should you do first?

A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.

B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the virtualization hosts.

C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.

D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the virtualization hosts.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

you plan to deploy a single-tier service to the private cloud. The service is configured to use Network Load

Balancing (NLB).

You need to create a Hardware Profile for the virtual machines that will be added to the service template.

The solution must ensure that the virtual machines will use Windows Network Load Balancing.

Which settings should you configure in the Hardware Profile?

To answer, configure the four appropriate setting in the dialog box in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manger (VMM) infrastructure.

The company has multiple departments.

You need to deploy a two-tier web application to the departments.

Which two library objects should you create?

To answer, select the appropriate library objects in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

The network contains an Operations Manager infrastructure and a Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

The private cloud contains a clustered VMM solution that has two virtualization hosts. The VMM solution hosts seven virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as showin in the following table.

You configure Dynamic Optimization to use the following settings:

A CPU Dynamic Optimization threshold of 30 percent

A CPU host reserve threshold of 15 percent

Low aggressiveness

You monitor the VMM solution and discover that the virtual machines rarely migrate from Server1 to Server2 when CPU utilization exceeds the configured threshold.

What should you do?

A. Set the Agressiveness to High.

B. Modify the CPU host reserve threshold

C. Configure a host profile.

D. Enable Power Optimization

Correct Answer: A Exam B

QUESTION 1

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

The private cloud contains 200 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. All of the servers are managed

by Operations Manager.

The private cloud contains an application named App1 that is deployed on-demand to several servers.

The servers that run the application are identified by a registry value set during the application’s

installation.

You create a monitor that targets all of the servers.

You need to modify the monitor to only affect the servers that have the application installed.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the

list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Build List and Reorder:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager

infrastructure.

The network contains a Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 organization.

You plan to import the Exchange Server 2010 Management Pack.

You need to configure Operation Manager to send Exchange-related notifications to Exchange Server

administrators.

What should you create first?

A. a channel

B. a User Role

C. an Exchange Server 2010 Send Connector

D. a monitor

E. an Exchange Server 2010 transport rule.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Andrew works as a System Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. All client computers on the network run on Mac OS X. The Sales Manager of the company complains that his MacBook is not able to boot. Andrew wants to check the booting process. He suspects that an error persists in the bootloader of Mac OS X. Which of the following is the default bootloader on Mac OS X that he should use to resolve the issue?

A. LILO

B. BootX

C. NT Loader

D. GRUB

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Sasha wants to add an entry to your DNS database for your mail server. Which of the following types of resource records will she use to accomplish this?

A. ANAME

B. SOA

C. MX

D. CNAME

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. It can detect events scattered over the network.

B. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.

C. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.

D. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

Victor works as a network administrator for DataSecu Inc. He uses a dual firewall Demilitarized

Zone (DMZ) to insulate the rest of the network from the portions that is available to the Internet.

Which of the following security threats may occur if DMZ protocol attacks are performed?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Attacker can perform Zero Day attack by delivering a malicious payload that is not a part of the intrusion detection/prevention systems guarding the network.

B. Attacker can gain access to the Web server in a DMZ and exploit the database.

C. Attacker managing to break the first firewall defense can access the internal network without breaking the second firewall if it is different.

D. Attacker can exploit any protocol used to go into the internal network or intranet of the com pany

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7

Which of the following is known as a message digest?

A. Hash function

B. Hashing algorithm

C. Spider

D. Message authentication code

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.

Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?

A. Document Object Model (DOM)

B. Non persistent

C. SAX

D. Persistent

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect’s computer runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based system?

A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces

B. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces

C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system

D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He wants to investigate a suspicious email that is sent using a Microsoft Exchange server. Which of the following files will he review to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Checkpoint files

B. EDB and STM database files

C. Temporary files

D. cookie files

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12

This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows:

-

It displays the signal strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc.

-

It is commonly used for the following purposes:

A.

War driving

B.

Detecting unauthorized access points

C.

Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN

D.

WEP ICV error tracking

E.

Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

SSH is a network protocol that allows data to be exchanged between two networks using a secure channel. Which of the following encryption algorithms can be used by the SSH protocol?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Blowfish

B. IDEA

C. DES

D. RC4

Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1

The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:

How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?

A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB

B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB

C. Increase “/var” file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space

D. Increase “/var/adm/ras/livedump” file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the inconsistent fileset levels were installed?

A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.

B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.

C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.

D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the lpp_source.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?

A. The network and disk must be virtual.

B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.

C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.

D. The client partition must be set up as a ‘Mover Service Partition’.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a system with 6 physical volumes?

A. RAID0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

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QUESTION 8 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?

A. varyonvg -n datavg

B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg

C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2

D. chvg -Qn datavg

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

An administrator needs to list/query the security attributes for the WPAR syswpar1. Which command will do this?

A. Issecattr-W syswpar1

B. Issecconf-w syswpar1

C. Isattr-s syswpar1

D. Iswpar-S syswpar1

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

AIX has been installed on an LPAR with 32 GB of memory. What should be checked first, before increasing the paging space beyond the default 512MB?

A. The maximum memory attribute in the LPAR profile.

B. Quantity and size of hosted filesystems.

C. Disk device distribution and utilization.

D. Paging requirements of applications that will be hosted.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

Which TWO groups of actions will create a CDROM file system for device cd0 and mount this on /cdfs? (Select 2)

A. cdutil-s-kcd0/cdfs mount /cdfs

B. Define cd0 mount point as /cdfs in file /etc/cdromd.conf startsrc -s cdromd cdmount cd0

C. Define cd0 mount point as /cdfs in /etc/filesystems as vfs type jfs2 mount /cdfs

D. crfs-vcdrfs-pro-d’cd0′-mVcdfs’ mount /cdfs

E. mkfs-v/cdfs/dev/cd0 mount /cdfs

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18

An administrator plans to duplicate the active rootvg on a given system to a spare disk that will be migrated to newer hardware. Which flag on ‘alt_disk_copy’ must be used to reset user-defined device configurations to defaults?

A. X

B. R

C. O

D. D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21

What action does the following command perform for a new AIX hdisk, hdisk1 ? chdev -I hdisk1 -a pv=yes

A. Makes the disk available for use

B. Changes the existing pvid on the disk to Yes’

C. Sets the physical volume identifier

D. Clears volume group locks

E. Resets the volume group descriptor area “Certification Depends on Only One Thing” – www.actualanswers.com 9 IBM 000-221 Exam

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

You create a host group named HostGroup1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HostGroup1.

You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HostGroup1 by using VMM.

An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HostGroup1.

You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HostGroup1.

What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.

B. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.

C. Modify the properties of HostGroup1.

D. Modify the properties of the baseline.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is

managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

You create a host group named HG1. You move Several Hyper-V hosts to HG1.

You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HG1 by using VMM.

An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HG1.

You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HG1.

What should you do?

Exhibit:

A. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) server.

B. Copy the Virtual Machine template to an alternate location.

C. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.

D. Modify the properties of HG1.

E. Modify the properties of the baseline.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manager (VMM) infrastructure. THe infrastructure contains several Hyper-V hosts.

You configure VMM to use an update server to synchronize the updates by using a Windows Server

Update Service (WSUS) server.

You attempt to verify complaince with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as

shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts.

What should you modify?

Exhibit:

A. the update classifications of the update server

B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline

C. the default configuration provider

D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts.

You configure VMM to use an update server to synchronize the updates by using a Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) server named WSUS1.

You attempt to verify complaince with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts.

What should you modify?

Exhibit:

A. the update classifications of the update server

B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline

C. the default configuration provider

D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Your comapny has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements:

Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console.

Store information about Windows update installation in Configuration Manager reports.

What should you do first?

A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.

B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the virtualization hosts.

C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.

D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the virtualization hosts.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

you plan to deploy a single-tier service to the private cloud. The service is configured to use Network Load

Balancing (NLB).

You need to create a Hardware Profile for the virtual machines that will be added to the service template.

The solution must ensure that the virtual machines will use Windows Network Load Balancing.

Which settings should you configure in the Hardware Profile?

To answer, configure the four appropriate setting in the dialog box in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine

Manger (VMM) infrastructure.

The company has multiple departments.

You need to deploy a two-tier web application to the departments.

Which two library objects should you create?

To answer, select the appropriate library objects in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

The network contains an Operations Manager infrastructure and a Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.

The private cloud contains a clustered VMM solution that has two virtualization hosts. The VMM solution hosts seven virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as showin in the following table.

You configure Dynamic Optimization to use the following settings:

A CPU Dynamic Optimization threshold of 30 percent

A CPU host reserve threshold of 15 percent

Low aggressiveness

You monitor the VMM solution and discover that the virtual machines rarely migrate from Server1 to Server2 when CPU utilization exceeds the configured threshold.

What should you do?

A. Set the Agressiveness to High.

B. Modify the CPU host reserve threshold

C. Configure a host profile.

D. Enable Power Optimization

Correct Answer: A Exam B

QUESTION 1

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure.

The private cloud contains 200 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. All of the servers are managed

by Operations Manager.

The private cloud contains an application named App1 that is deployed on-demand to several servers.

The servers that run the application are identified by a registry value set during the application’s

installation.

You create a monitor that targets all of the servers.

You need to modify the monitor to only affect the servers that have the application installed.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the

list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Build List and Reorder:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager

infrastructure.

The network contains a Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 organization.

You plan to import the Exchange Server 2010 Management Pack.

You need to configure Operation Manager to send Exchange-related notifications to Exchange Server

administrators.

What should you create first?

A. a channel

B. a User Role

C. an Exchange Server 2010 Send Connector

D. a monitor

E. an Exchange Server 2010 transport rule.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.

The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the

virtual machine.

What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or

datastores?

A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore

B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion

C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore

D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update.

After confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault Tolerance on the virtual machine and

suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.

Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)

A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.

B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the “-delta.vmdk” extension.

C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.

D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3

An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested. Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?

A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the datastore.

B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.

C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the virtual machine.

D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots? (Choose three.)

A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.

B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.

C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.

D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.

E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5

An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible deduplication store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)

A. Two CIFS shares

B. Two RDMs on a FCP array

C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array

D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM

E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6

An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x. Several hosts

and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.

Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?

A. Virtual Machine Hardware

B. ESX Hosts

C. VMFS datastores

D. VMware Tools

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

An administrator is using Update Manager 5.x to update virtual appliances in a vSphere environment.

The environment is using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA). What would cause the remediation

to fail?

A. Updating of the appliance can only be done if the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) has been put into Maintenance Mode.

B. Remediation must be configured on the Appliance Administration page before use.

C. Remediation of the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) with Update Manager is not supported.

D. Remediation requires the hosts to be connected to vCenter using an IPv4 address.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x deployment using

Update Manager Baselines.

Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update? (Choose

three.)

A. Operating system patches

B. Virtual Appliance updates

C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades

D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed

E. Application patches within the virtual machine

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11

An ESXi 5.x host displays a warning icon in the vSphere console and its summary page lists a

configuration issue “SSH for the host has been enabled.”

What are two ways to clear this warning? (Choose two.)

A. Using the Security Profile pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client

B. Using the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)

C. Using the Advanced Settings pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client

D. Using the Networking pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12

vCenter reports a connectivity problem with a ESXi 5.x host that is not a member of a cluster.

An administrator attempts to connect directly to the host using the vSphere Client but fails with the

message “An unknown connection error occurred.”

Virtual machines running on the host appear to be running and report no problem.

What two methods would likely resolve the issue without affecting the virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A. Enter the service mgmt-vmware restart command from either SSH or local CLI

B. Select Restart Management Agents in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)

C. Select Reboot Host in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)

D. Enter the services.sh restart command from either SSH or the local CLI

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1

You plan to deploy a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You plan to create and deploy a service named

CloudService1.

You need to recommend a solution to deploy CloudService1 to a Windows Azure subscription.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. System Center 2012 Service Manager

B. System Center 2012 Orchestrator

C. System Center 2012 Operations Manager

D. System Center 2012 App Controller

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Developers at Contoso have two Windows Azure subscriptions. Contoso creates a partnership with another company named A. Datum. The A. Datum network contains a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure that contains three clouds. Developers at A.Datum have two Windows Azure subscriptions.

You deploy System Center 2012 App Controller at A.Datum.

You plan to manage the clouds and the Windows Azure subscriptions for both companies from the App Controller portal. You need to identify the minimum number of subscriptions and the minimum number connections required for the planned management.

How many connections and subscriptions should you identify?

A. two connections and two subscriptions

B. four connections and two subscriptions

C. four connections and four subscriptions

D. two connections and four subscriptions

E. eight connections and four subscriptions

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

You have a System Center 2012 Service Manager infrastructure that contains a Self-Service Portal. The corporate network access policy states that users must be assigned the minimum number of permissions to access the network resources.

You need to ensure that a user named Testuser5 can create incidents by using the Self-Service Portal. The solution must meet the requirements of the network access policy .

Which permissions should you assign to Testuser5 from Site Settings?

A. Design

B. Full Control

C. Read

D. Contribute

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. You deploy Microsoft Share Point Foundation 2010. You have an Operations Manager Web Part.

You need to ensure that the Web Part is available on the SharePoint site. What should you do first?

A. Configure the Web Part solution.

B. Deploy the Web Part to the SharePoint site.

C. Configure the Web Part to use shared credentials.

D. Add the Web Part to a webpage.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You have a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure that contains a server named Server1.

A user named User1 attempts to add a Hyper-V host named Server2 to the fabric. User1 enters the IP address of Server2 and receives the following error message:

“Access has been denied while contacting the server Server2.”

You verify that User1 is assigned the Delegated Administrator User Role”

You need to ensure that User1 can add Server2 to the fabric. What should you do?

A. Assign the Administrator User Role to User1.

B. Add User1 to the Domain Admins security group.

C. Modify the logon account for the System Center Virtual Machine Manager Agent service on Server1.

D. Create a Run As Account that is a member of the local Administrators group on Server2.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Your company has a private cloud that contains 200 virtual machines. The network contains a server named Server1 that has the Microsoft Server Application Virtualization (Server App-V) Sequencer installed.

You plan to sequence, and then deploy a line-of-business web application named App1. App1 has a Windows Installer package named Install.msi. App1 must be able to store temporary files.

You need to identify which task must be performed on Server1 before you deploy App1.

What task should you identify?

A. Add a script to the OSD file.

B. Install the Web Server (IIS) server role.

C. Modify the environment variables.

D. Compress Install.msi.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Your company has a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains the App Controller and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) roles.

You deploy a service named SRV1 to the production environment in the public cloud. You also deploy SRV1 to a staging environment in the public cloud. You perform upgrades to SRV1 in the staging environment.

You need to apply the upgrades from the staging environment to the production environment.

What should you do?

A. From the VMM Administrator Console, create a new virtual machine template.

B. From the App Controller portal, perform an environment swap upgrade.

C. From the VMM Administrator Console, create a new service.

D. From the App Controller portal, import an SSL certificate.

E. From the VMM Administrator Console, create a new service template.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Your network contains a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manger (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains 50 virtual machines.

You need to deploy a Microsoft SQL Server dedicated administrator connection (DAC) package to a service.

What should you create from the VMM Administrator Console?

A. a Run As account

B. a Capability Profile

C. a virtual machine template

D. an Application Profile

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

You have a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMIM) infrastructure that contains a server

named Server1. Server1 hosts the VMM library.

You add a server named Server2 to the network. You install the Windows Deployment Services (WDS)

server role on Server2.

You have the Install.wim file from the Windows Server 20008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1) installation media.

You need to install Hyper-V hosts by using the bare-metal installation method.

What should you do first?

A. Convert Install.wim to a .vmc file.

B. Convert Install.wim to a .vhd file.

C. Add Install.wim to the VMM library.

D. Add Install.wim to the Install Images Container.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

You have a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure that contains 20 virtualization hosts. Each host contains 20 virtual machines.

You need to configure the network fabric. The solution must prevent the virtual machines from connecting to a VLAN.

What should you do from the Network Site properties?

A. Set the VLAN 10 to 19.

B. Set the subnet to FD4A::/64.

C. Set the VLAN 10 to 0.

D. Set the subnet to 192.168.1.0/25.

Correct Answer: C

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Buy free 9A0-019 Adobe real exam practice

QUESTION 1

If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it overlaps the content of the low layer.

A. link the layers

B. make a clipping group

C. link the layers and select Merge Linked

D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which command converts a selection into a new layer?

A. Copy Merged

B. Layer Via Copy

C. New Adjustment Layer

D. Layer from Background

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Exhibit:

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)

A. a layer mask

B. a clipping group

C. an adjustment layer

D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4

You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a new layer mask. What should you do?

A. paint with black

B. paint with a shade of gray

C. change the opacity of the layer

D. change the opacity of the layer mask

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Exhibit:

You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you PREVENTED from doing?

A. changing the blending mode

B. changing the shape of the clipping path

C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask

D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Exhibit:

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?

A. position the type layer above the fill layer: with the type layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down

B. position the type layer below the fill layer: with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down

C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous

D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)

A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box

B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style

C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box

D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9

You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?

A. None

B. Folder

C. Import

D. Save and Close

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be affected by the adjustment layer?

A. layers above the adjustment layer

B. layer below the adjustment layer

C. only layers included in the same layer set

D. only layers linked with the adjustment layer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

You want to randomly display 7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do?

A. set the layer opacity to 7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve

B. set the layer opacity to 7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference

C. apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with 7% opacity

D. apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with 7% opacity

Correct Answer: A

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Have free 101-01 Riverstone practice tests

QUESTION 1

What factors should you use when measuring resources to help you size your Steelhead appliances? (Select 3)

A. Number of connections per second

B. Average response time

C. Maximum number of optimized connections

D. Datastore capacity

E. Maximum number of TCP connections

F. WAN capacity

Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 5

What do you configure to control optimization on a Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)

A. In-path rules

B. Optimization rules

C. Load balancing rules

D. Peering rules

E. TCP rules

F. Acceleration policies

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6

Can you manage your Virtual Steelhead appliance from a Central Management Console?

A. Yes, this is possible “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Riverbed 101-01 Exam

B. Only on out-of-path deployments

C. Only on in-path deployments

D. There is a dedicated management device for Virtual Steelhead appliances

E. You can only manage your Virtual Steelhead appliances using a virtualized console

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

What is the packaging distribution format for the Virtual Steelhead appliance?

A. Open Virtual Appliance

B. Open Virtual Image

C. Open Virtual Release

D. Open Virtual Source

E. Open Virtual Package

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

How can I obtain Virtual Steelhead appliance license keys?

A. Using the Riverbed public support site

B. Contacting VMware

C. Virtual Steelhead appliance license keys are included in the install package

D. Base licenses are not required

E. Only SSL licenses are not included

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

With branch warming enabled, new data transferred between the Steelhead Mobile client and a server will be populated into: (Select 3)

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A. The Steelhead Mobile client datastore

B. The local office Steelhead appliance datastore

C. The server-side Steelhead appliance datastore

D. Datastore will not be populated

E. The Steelhead Mobile Controller datastore

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10

A Steelhead appliance can be configured to automatically send an email to a preconfigured email address in the event of a failure. Where is this done? (Select 3)

A. GUI

B. CLI

C. RADIUS/TACACS

D. Can be done via the Central Management Console

E. DNS server

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11

What does the RiOS acronym stand for?

A. Riverbed interact Operations Shares

B. Riverbed Optimization System

C. Riverbed integrating Operating System

D. Riverbed is Orange Shamrocks

E. Riverbed is Outstandingly Simple

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

How many in-path rules will a LAN-initiated single connection execute on a Steelhead appliance?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

How many in-path rules will a WAN-initiated single connection execute on a Steelhead appliance?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: A

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The most helpful RCDD BICSI certification exam guide

QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?

A. IEEE 802.9

B. IEEE 802.11

C. IEEE 802.14

D. IEEE 802.3

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of the installed equipment.

A. False

B. True

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection Systems?

A. NFPA-780

B. NFPA-70

C. NFPA-72

D. NFPA-75

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit, cable, or component

offers to the flow of alternating current.

A unit of measure expressed in ohms.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7

The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?

A. Electromagnetic immunity.

B. Electromagnetic compatibility.

C. Electromagnetic induction.

D. Electromagnetic disturbance.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following test?

A. Mechanical

B. Regulatory codes

C. Electrical

D. Thermal

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9

Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the customer feeder cable.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?

A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.

B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.

C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.

D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

The CEC is revised every four years.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

In what year was the TIA formed?

A. 1985

B. 1965

C. 1958

D. 1956

Correct Answer: A

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